ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 2 of 9
A patient comes into the clinic complaining of facial pain, fever, and malaise. On examination, the nurse notes swollen turbinates and a purulent discharge from the nose. The patient also complains of a dull, throbbing pain in his cheeks and teeth on the right side and pain when the nurse palpates the areas. The nurse recognizes that this patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The patient's symptoms of facial pain, fever, malaise, swollen turbinates, purulent nasal discharge, pain in cheeks and teeth, and pain upon palpation all point towards maxillary sinusitis. The maxillary sinuses are located in the cheek area, and infection can lead to the described symptoms. Frontal sinusitis typically presents with forehead pain, and nasal polyps would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. Posterior epistaxis involves bleeding from the back of the nose and is not consistent with the patient's symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is C: maxillary sinusitis.
Question 3 of 9
A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says,"My daughter rolled over and hit her head on the wall, and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The "soft spot" on a baby's head, also known as the fontanelle, is a normal anatomical feature that allows for the growth and development of the baby's brain during the first year of life. It is a gap between the bones of the skull that eventually closes as the baby grows. Response A is incorrect because the fontanelle is not related to maternal dietary intake during pregnancy. Response B is incorrect as craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures of the skull close prematurely, leading to abnormal head shape. Response C is incorrect as cretinism and congenital hypothyroidism are not typically associated with the fontanelle. Overall, the correct response, D, provides an accurate explanation of the normal function of the fontanelle in a newborn's development.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.
Question 5 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Second-hand cigarette smoke. Exposure to second-hand smoke can irritate and inflame the lining of the Eustachian tube, making young children more susceptible to ear infections. This is supported by research showing a clear link between exposure to cigarette smoke and increased rates of ear infections in children. Family history (A) may contribute to genetic predisposition but is not a direct risk factor. Air conditioning (B) does not directly cause ear infections. Excessive cerumen (C) can lead to blockages but is not a primary risk factor for infections.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How would the nurse proceed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should use the Snellen chart positioned 6.1 m (20 ft) away to assess visual acuity. This is the standard method for testing distance vision. The nurse should ask the patient to read the letters on the chart from the top row down, covering one eye at a time if necessary. This method provides an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance. A: Performing the confrontation test assesses visual fields, not visual acuity. B: Using a Jaeger card is for near vision testing, not distance visual acuity. D: Assessing the ability to read newsprint at a close distance does not provide an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the nurse would assess the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: supraclavicular area. Enlarged submental lymph nodes can indicate a systemic issue. Assessing the supraclavicular area is important as it contains Virchow's node, which may indicate malignancy or metastasis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically target the area most likely to reveal significant findings related to the enlarged submental lymph nodes.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).