ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 2 of 9
What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.
Question 3 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 4 of 9
Intraocular pressure is determined by the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because intraocular pressure is primarily determined by the amount of aqueous humor produced and the resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber. When there is an imbalance in the production and outflow of aqueous humor, it can lead to an increase in intraocular pressure, which can result in conditions like glaucoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly influence intraocular pressure. The thickness or bulging of the lens (A) is related to accommodation for near vision, the posterior chamber accommodating fluid (B) is not a primary factor in determining intraocular pressure, and the contraction of the ciliary body (C) affects the shape of the lens for focusing rather than intraocular pressure regulation.
Question 5 of 9
The mother of a newborn asks the nurse when her baby's eyesight will be fully developed. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because vision is not fully developed until around 2 years of age. Newborns have limited visual capabilities and their visual acuity improves over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because infants do not develop the ability to focus on an object at 8 months (B), develop coordinated eye movements by 3 months (C), or have uncoordinated eye movements in the first year of life (D). These statements do not accurately reflect the timeline of visual development in infants.
Question 6 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man. Which of the following age-related hearing changes should the nurse keep in mind? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Age-related hearing loss begins in the mid-40s. This is because presbycusis, or age-related hearing loss, typically starts around the mid-40s due to natural aging processes affecting the inner ear. Choice B is incorrect as the progression of hearing loss can vary, being gradual for some individuals but not necessarily slow for everyone. Choice C is incorrect as high-frequency tone loss, not low-frequency, is commonly associated with aging. Choice D is incorrect as difficulty hearing consonants is more related to specific types of hearing loss, not solely age-related changes.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How would the nurse proceed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should use the Snellen chart positioned 6.1 m (20 ft) away to assess visual acuity. This is the standard method for testing distance vision. The nurse should ask the patient to read the letters on the chart from the top row down, covering one eye at a time if necessary. This method provides an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance. A: Performing the confrontation test assesses visual fields, not visual acuity. B: Using a Jaeger card is for near vision testing, not distance visual acuity. D: Assessing the ability to read newsprint at a close distance does not provide an accurate measurement of visual acuity at a distance.