Which of the following is the best dietary advice to maximize the immune function in healthy people?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and the immune system, the correct answer to the question is option D) To follow a balanced and varied diet. This is the best dietary advice to maximize immune function in healthy individuals because a balanced diet provides all the necessary nutrients essential for a robust immune response. A balanced diet ensures that the body receives adequate vitamins, minerals, proteins, and other nutrients necessary for the proper functioning of the immune system. By consuming a variety of foods, individuals can ensure they are getting a wide range of nutrients that support immune function. Option A) To include immune-enhancing formulas is incorrect because relying on supplements or formulas alone may not provide the same benefits as a well-rounded diet. Whole foods contain a complex mix of nutrients that work synergistically to support overall health, including immune function. Option B) To avoid polyunsaturated fatty acids is also not the best advice as certain polyunsaturated fatty acids, like omega-3 fatty acids, are actually beneficial for the immune system. Omega-3 fatty acids have anti-inflammatory properties and play a role in regulating immune responses. Option C) To increase intake of essential fatty acids and omega-3 fatty acids is partially correct as omega-3 fatty acids are indeed beneficial for the immune system. However, solely focusing on one type of nutrient may lead to imbalances in the diet. Educationally, it is important to emphasize to students that a holistic approach to nutrition is key in supporting overall health and immune function. Encouraging a diverse and balanced diet rich in fruits, vegetables, whole grains, lean proteins, and healthy fats is fundamental in maintaining a strong immune system.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a client with AIDS, a CD4 cell count above 500 mm³ would indicate that antiretroviral therapy is being effective. This is because a CD4 cell count is a crucial indicator of immune function in individuals living with HIV/AIDS. CD4 cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a central role in coordinating the immune response. In HIV/AIDS, the virus specifically targets and destroys CD4 cells, leading to a weakened immune system. When a person is on effective antiretroviral therapy, the medication helps to suppress the replication of the virus, allowing the CD4 cell count to increase. A CD4 count above 500 mm³ generally signifies a healthier immune system and a reduced risk of opportunistic infections in individuals with HIV/AIDS. Looking at the options, we can see why the other choices are incorrect: - A) 250 mm³ is too low and would indicate a compromised immune system. - B) 1000 mm³ is within the normal range but may not specifically indicate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. - D) 275 mm³ is also too low and would not be considered a positive response to treatment. Understanding CD4 cell counts and their significance in the context of HIV/AIDS is vital for healthcare professionals involved in the care of individuals with this condition. Monitoring CD4 counts helps in assessing the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment interventions, such as antiretroviral therapy. It is essential for healthcare providers to interpret these results accurately to guide clinical decision-making and provide optimal care to patients with HIV/AIDS.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The occupational health nurse is trained to handle situations involving potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens. They can appropriately discuss the need for HIV testing with the patient and ensure that the process is handled confidentially and professionally. The nurse manager and the injured nurse should not directly approach the patient about this sensitive issue.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Methotrexate is teratogenic and should not be used during pregnancy. If the patient is trying to get pregnant this is a critical consideration that must be discussed with the physician before starting the medication. The other information while important does not have the same immediate implications for treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In patients with rheumatoid arthritis, pain upon awakening is a common symptom due to the characteristic morning stiffness associated with this condition. This stiffness is caused by the inflammatory process that occurs during the night when the body is at rest. As the patient starts moving after waking up, the joints gradually loosen, leading to pain and stiffness relief as the day progresses. This pattern of pain is a hallmark of rheumatoid arthritis. Option A, pain with activity, is a feature more commonly seen in osteoarthritis where pain worsens with joint use and improves with rest. Option C, pain late in the evening, is not a typical presentation of rheumatoid arthritis and does not align with the characteristic morning stiffness seen in this condition. Option D, pain all day without remission, is not specific to rheumatoid arthritis and does not reflect the typical pattern of pain experienced by individuals with this condition. Educationally, understanding the timing and pattern of pain in rheumatoid arthritis is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately assess and manage patients with this condition. Recognizing the unique features of rheumatoid arthritis pain can aid in early diagnosis, appropriate treatment interventions, and improved quality of life for patients.