ATI RN
ANCC Cardiovascular Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is the best action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Administering metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide is appropriate as they are commonly prescribed antihypertensive medications. 2. Holding captopril is correct because it is contraindicated with hydrochlorothiazide due to increased risk of hyperkalemia. 3. Notifying the physician is necessary for further guidance and potential alternative treatment options. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Administering captopril with hydrochlorothiazide is not recommended due to potential adverse effects. Holding metoprolol without a valid reason is not indicated. C: Administering all medications without considering drug interactions is unsafe and may lead to harmful effects. D: Withholding all medications without proper justification can result in uncontrolled hypertension and potential complications.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse would assess for which of the following manifestations in a client with suspected arterial embolism to the left hand? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. Arterial embolism to the left hand can lead to ischemia, causing severe pain due to inadequate blood flow. This pain is typically described as sudden and severe. Pale skin (B) is a sign of inadequate blood supply but may not be specific to arterial embolism. Bounding radial pulse (C) is unlikely in arterial embolism as it obstructs blood flow. Parasthesias (D) may occur due to nerve compression, but pain is a more prominent symptom in arterial embolism.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is suspected of having a decreased cardiac output due to dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessments would be included in a decreased cardiac output? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated jugular venous distention. This is a common sign of decreased cardiac output as it indicates increased central venous pressure due to impaired cardiac function. Elevated JVD reflects inadequate cardiac output, leading to blood backing up into the jugular veins. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Polyuria is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output. Full and bounding pulses are usually seen in conditions of increased cardiac output, not decreased. Diaphoresis is a non-specific symptom and can be present in various conditions, not specifically indicative of decreased cardiac output.
Question 4 of 5
If a hypertensive client with asthma takes the maximal dose of his diuretic and his blood pressure still isn't controlled, the nurse understands the next step in controlling his hypertension would be to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that helps lower blood pressure by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Step 2: Adding enalapril would be the appropriate next step as it provides an additional mechanism of action to control hypertension. Step 3: Changing to a beta blocker (B) or adding another diuretic (C) may not address the underlying cause of the uncontrolled hypertension. Step 4: Increasing the drug dosage above recommended levels (D) can lead to adverse effects without necessarily improving blood pressure control.
Question 5 of 5
A second 12 lead ECG performed on a patient 4 hours after the onset of chest pain reveals ST segment elevation. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.