ATI RN
The Hematologic System ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is not the criteria in the international prognostic index for non Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lymphocyte count. The International Prognostic Index (IPI) for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma includes factors such as age, number of extranodal sites, LDH level, performance status, and stage. Lymphocyte count is not a specific criteria in the IPI. This index is used to predict the outcome of patients with aggressive lymphomas. A higher score indicates a worse prognosis. A low lymphocyte count is not a consistent prognostic factor for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, unlike the other factors listed. Therefore, choice C is not a criteria in the IPI, making it the correct answer.
Question 2 of 5
A 50-year-old male who had frequent infections of his upper respiratory tract manifested with subcutaneous petechiae over his arms and legs. Investigations revealed low hemoglobin and a dry tap marrow. The most likely condition the patient is suffering from
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aplastic anemia. This condition is characterized by pancytopenia, which includes low hemoglobin (anemia), low platelets (manifested as petechiae), and low white blood cells (frequent infections). Dry tap marrow is a classic finding in aplastic anemia due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) typically presents with microcytic hypochromic anemia without pancytopenia. Megaloblastic anemia (choice B) is characterized by macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils and is usually caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 or folate. Hemolytic anemia (choice C) presents with anemia due to increased destruction of red blood cells, which does not explain the low platelets and white blood cells seen in this patient.
Question 3 of 5
RBCs break into fragments, they are referred to as schistocytes. These type of cells are seen in
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Schistocytes are fragmented red blood cells seen in conditions where RBCs are physically sheared or damaged as they pass through small blood vessels. In microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, abnormal or damaged blood vessels cause mechanical destruction of RBCs, leading to the formation of schistocytes. Sickle cell trait (A) and Thalassemia (B) are genetic disorders that do not typically cause schistocytes. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (D) is a condition characterized by low platelet count, not associated with schistocytes.
Question 4 of 5
Platelet aggregation is an important event in hemostasis. Which of the following statement is true for platelet aggregation in vascular injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Platelets change their shape during platelet aggregation to form a plug at the site of vascular injury. This process involves platelets adhering to the injured blood vessel wall, becoming activated, and then changing shape to form a clot. Vasodilation is not an initial response, as vasoconstriction occurs to reduce blood loss. Clotting factors are essential for clot formation and play a significant role. Serotonin is released from platelets during aggregation but does not directly stimulate aggregation. The correct choice, C, directly correlates with the physiological process of platelet aggregation in response to vascular injury.
Question 5 of 5
Dengue is a common vector-borne disease prevalent in tropical countries. Which of the following statement is true for dengue fever?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Aedes mosquito, the vector for dengue fever, remains infective for life once it is infected with the dengue virus. This is due to the virus establishing a lifelong infection in the mosquito's salivary glands. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Dengue is caused by an RNA virus, not a DNA virus. C) The Aedes mosquito prefers clean, stagnant water for breeding, not polluted water. D) Joint symptoms are commoner in chikungunya, not dengue fever.