Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. The M6 practical nurse is primarily responsible for performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (B), and managing ward or unit operations (C). The duties mentioned in choices A, B, and C align with the roles typically assigned to a practical nurse, making them incorrect answers for this question.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct care for a client in Buck's traction includes turning the client to the unaffected side to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Additionally, asking the client to dorsiflex the foot on the affected leg helps prevent foot drop. Removing the foam boot three times per day to inspect the skin is unnecessary and could disrupt the traction, so it is not appropriate. Therefore, choices A and D are incorrect.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse has been assigned to train the unlicensed nursing assistant about prioritizing care. Which client should the nurse instruct the unlicensed nursing assistant to see first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Removing sequential compression devices could increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a serious complication. Therefore, this client should be seen first to prevent any potential harm. Choice B may be important, but it does not pose an immediate risk compared to thromboembolism. Choice C is a routine care task that can be delayed, and Choice D, discontinuing intravenous fluid, is important but not as urgent as preventing thromboembolism.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with Crohn's disease is experiencing diarrhea. Which dietary recommendation is appropriate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A low-residue diet is appropriate for a patient with Crohn's disease experiencing diarrhea because it helps reduce bowel movements and manage symptoms. Choice A, a high-fiber diet, can exacerbate diarrhea in Crohn's disease due to increased bulk and fermentation in the gut. Choice C, a high-fat diet, may be hard to digest and can worsen symptoms. Choice D, a high-protein diet, can be taxing on the digestive system and may not provide the relief needed for diarrhea in Crohn's disease.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client's sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

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