ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the major duties of the M6 practical nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because implementing Level II through Level IV CSH operations is not a major duty of the M6 practical nurse. A practical nurse's major duties include performing preventive, therapeutic, and emergency nursing care procedures (Choice A), managing other paraprofessional personnel (Choice B), and managing ward or unit operations (Choice C). These duties are more aligned with the responsibilities of a practical nurse, emphasizing patient care and coordination within a healthcare setting.
Question 2 of 9
Which referral would be most appropriate for the client diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the occupational therapist. An occupational therapist specializes in helping individuals with activities of daily living, ergonomic assessments, and adaptive techniques. In the case of thoracic outlet syndrome, an occupational therapist can provide exercises and adaptations to improve the client's function and alleviate symptoms. Choosing the physical therapist (choice A) may also be beneficial for rehabilitation exercises, but occupational therapists focus more on functional activities. Referring to a thoracic surgeon (choice B) would be more appropriate for surgical interventions rather than initial management. Referring to a social worker (choice D) may not directly address the physical symptoms and functional limitations associated with thoracic outlet syndrome.
Question 3 of 9
During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into what type of organization?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During peacetime, most CONUS hospital military personnel are organized into a TDA (Table of Distribution and Allowances) type of organization. TDA defines the structure and personnel requirements of a unit. Choice A, DVA (Department of Veterans Affairs), is not the typical organizational structure for military hospital personnel. Choice B, TOE (Table of Organization and Equipment), refers to the organization and equipment of a unit, not the personnel organization. Choice D, NDMS (National Disaster Medical System), is a federal program that coordinates medical responses to disasters and emergencies, but it is not the primary organizational structure for military hospital personnel during peacetime.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is planning to provide education about foods containing thiamine to a group of clients. Which food high in thiamine should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pork. Pork is high in thiamine, which is important for preventing thiamine deficiency. Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B1, is essential for the body's metabolism and proper functioning of the nervous system. While fish, beef, and eggs are nutritious foods, they do not contain as high levels of thiamine as pork does. Therefore, when educating clients about thiamine-rich foods, pork would be the most appropriate choice.
Question 5 of 9
The HCP orders cultures of the urethral urine, bladder urine, and prostatic fluid. Which instructions would the nurse teach to achieve the first two (2) specimens?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to collect the first 15 mL in one jar and then the next 50 mL in another. This method allows for accurate cultures of urethral and bladder urine. Choice B is incorrect because it does not specify the correct method for collecting urethral and bladder urine separately. Choice C is incorrect because prostatic fluid is a separate specimen that does not require prostatic massage for collection. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests collecting a routine urine specimen, which does not fulfill the HCP's orders for specific cultures.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is a nonmedical member of a unit who receives additional training in providing care beyond basic first aid procedures?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Combat lifesaver.' A Combat Lifesaver is a nonmedical member of a unit who is trained in advanced first aid procedures, providing care beyond basic first aid. Choice A, 'Area support squad leader,' does not specifically refer to someone trained in providing advanced care. Choice B, 'ATLS specialist,' refers to someone trained in Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS), which is beyond the scope of the question. Choice C, 'Tactical lifesaver,' is not a recognized term for the role described in the question.
Question 8 of 9
Who typically collects blood specimens?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses typically collect blood specimens from patients as part of their everyday duties in medical settings. They are trained in venipuncture techniques and are responsible for ensuring that blood samples are properly obtained and labeled for diagnostic testing. Medical technologists process and analyze the blood specimens in the laboratory under the direction of a physician. Physicians are not commonly involved in the direct collection of blood specimens. While phlebotomists are specialized professionals trained to draw blood, in many medical settings, nurses perform this task as part of their responsibilities.
Question 9 of 9
Which potential complication should the nurse assess for in the client with infective endocarditis who has embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased urine output.' Embolization of vegetative lesions from the mitral valve can cause renal infarction, leading to a decrease in urine output. This complication is due to the obstruction of blood flow to the kidneys. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because embolization from the mitral valve typically does not directly cause pulmonary embolism, hemoptysis, or deep vein thrombosis.