ATI RN
Hematological System Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is not associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. 2. Neurologic deficits are common due to microvascular thrombi affecting the brain. 3. Thrombosis is a hallmark feature of TTP, with platelet aggregation leading to microthrombi formation. 4. Therefore, choice A is not associated with TTP because thrombosis is a defining feature.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following subtypes of Hodgkin's lymphoma is common in young women and has good prognosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nodular sclerosis subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma. It is common in young women due to its peak incidence in the 20s-30s. This subtype has a good prognosis as it is the most indolent with a high cure rate. It is characterized by fibrotic bands dividing the lymph node into nodules, containing lacunar (Reed-Sternberg) cells. The other choices (B: Mixed cellularity, C: Lymphocyte predominance, D: Lymphocyte depletion) are incorrect: B: Mixed cellularity is more common in older adults and has a less favorable prognosis. C: Lymphocyte predominance is rare and has a favorable prognosis, but it is more common in young males, not young women. D: Lymphocyte depletion is rare, aggressive, and associated with a poor prognosis, not common in young women.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is presented with pallor, fatigue and dyspnea. Physical examination shows koilonychias and angular cheilitis. Which of the following is not expected in the laboratory finding of this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The patient presents with symptoms of iron deficiency anemia. Step 2: Koilonychias and angular cheilitis are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. Step 3: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) is expected in iron deficiency anemia due to decreased iron stores. Step 4: High serum transferrin and low iron:TIBC ratio are also expected in iron deficiency anemia. Step 5: Therefore, the correct answer is A, as low TIBC is expected in iron deficiency anemia. Summary: B: High serum transferrin and C: Low iron:TIBC ratio are expected in iron deficiency anemia. D: Low serum ferritin is expected in iron deficiency anemia as it is a marker of decreased iron stores.
Question 4 of 5
Spherocytosis is a common cause of inherited hemolytic anemia. The most likely cause for spherocytosis is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Defects in the peripheral proteins. Spherocytosis is characterized by spherical-shaped red blood cells due to defects in the peripheral proteins of the cell membrane, such as spectrin or ankyrin. This results in decreased membrane stability and fragility, leading to hemolysis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not the most likely cause as spherocytosis is primarily due to defects in peripheral proteins, not integral proteins. Choice C is incorrect as "ropalux" is not a known factor in spherocytosis. Choice D is incorrect as sickle-shaped cells are characteristic of sickle cell anemia, not spherocytosis.
Question 5 of 5
Myelodysplastic syndromes are a group of clonal stem cell disorders. Which of the following type has the poorest prognosis according to the FAB system of classifications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: RA with excess blasts in transformation. This type has the poorest prognosis as it represents a progression to acute myeloid leukemia, which is associated with a high mortality rate. In the FAB system, this category indicates a higher blast count than RA with excess blasts (choice C), leading to a worse outcome. Choices A and B are associated with a lower risk of progression to AML compared to choices C and D. Therefore, D is the correct answer due to its direct association with the most aggressive form of the disease.