ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is not an opioid or NSAID. It is a pain reliever and fever reducer, but it works in a different way compared to opioids and NSAIDs. Unlike opioids, acetaminophen does not have the same risk of physical dependence or addiction. And unlike NSAIDs, acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is often used for mild to moderate pain relief and as a fever reducer. Be cautious when taking acetaminophen, as high doses can be harmful to the liver.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse manages care for several clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What will the priority assessment by the nurse include as related to side effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HRT increases clotting risk, making calf pain a priority due to potential DVT, a life-threatening side effect. Libido , back pain , and fatigue are less urgent. A ensures safety, aligning with HRT risks, making it the priority.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with extremely high blood pressure (BP) is in the emergency department. The physician will order therapy with nitroglycerin to manage the patient™s BP. Which form of nitroglycerin is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the emergency management of a patient with extremely high blood pressure, intravenous (IV) administration of nitroglycerin is the most appropriate form of delivery. IV infusion provides rapid and precise control of blood pressure by allowing the medication to take effect quickly and be titrated to the desired blood pressure level. This route of administration is crucial in acute settings like the emergency department, where immediate blood pressure management is needed. Other forms of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual spray, transdermal patch, or oral capsule, may not provide the rapid onset of action required in this critical situation.
Question 4 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lidocaine allergy causing an issue with suturing suggests an allergic reaction , likely IgE-mediated (overlapping with B, but A is broader). Neurogenic , psychogenic , and vascular (E) don't fit. True local anesthetic allergies are rare but explain this history.
Question 5 of 5
Acyclovir has been ordered for a patient with genital herpes. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir can cause nephrotoxicity, so monitoring blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels is essential. Hypertension is not a common side effect of acyclovir. Intravenous acyclovir should be administered over at least 1 hour to prevent renal toxicity. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent crystalluria and nephrotoxicity.