ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate method to decrease the incidence of PONV?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV), it is crucial to understand the rationale behind why certain methods are appropriate or inappropriate. In this case, option B, hydration using ketorolac, is not an appropriate method to decrease the incidence of PONV. Ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can actually increase the risk of postoperative bleeding and gastric irritation, which can exacerbate nausea and vomiting in susceptible patients. Preoperative fasting (option A) is a common practice to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia induction, but it does not directly impact PONV incidence. Glucose supplementation (option C) is also not directly related to PONV prevention and may not have a significant effect on postoperative nausea and vomiting. The prophylactic use of ondansetron (option D) is an appropriate method to decrease the incidence of PONV. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist commonly used to prevent and treat nausea and vomiting, especially in the postoperative setting. It helps to block the action of serotonin, which plays a role in triggering nausea and vomiting. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind each answer choice not only helps in answering this specific question correctly but also enhances the understanding of PONV prevention strategies in pediatric patients undergoing surgery. This knowledge is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatric settings to provide optimal care and enhance patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Which causes the clinical manifestations of hydronephrosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hydronephrosis is a condition characterized by the swelling of the kidney due to a backup of urine. Option A, "A structural abnormality causes urine to back up, increasing pressure and causing cell death," is the correct answer because it accurately describes the primary cause of hydronephrosis. Structural abnormalities such as kidney stones, tumors, or strictures can obstruct the flow of urine, leading to the backup of urine in the kidney, increased pressure, and ultimately cell death. Option B, "Urine flows too freely, causing imbalances," is incorrect because hydronephrosis is not caused by the free flow of urine but rather by its obstruction. Option C, "Decreased urine production causes electrolyte issues," is also incorrect as hydronephrosis is not directly related to decreased urine production. Option D, "Abnormal urine composition leads to high blood pressure and increased GFR," is not a direct cause of hydronephrosis. In an educational context, understanding the etiology of hydronephrosis is crucial for nursing students and healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and interventions for patients with this condition. Knowledge of the correct answer helps in differentiating hydronephrosis from other renal conditions and guides in the development of effective treatment plans to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
Abrupt withdrawal of baclofen may cause
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question from the ATI Pediatric Practice Questions exam, the correct answer is D) seizure. Abrupt withdrawal of baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat spasticity, can lead to a withdrawal syndrome characterized by an increased risk of seizures. This occurs because baclofen acts on the central nervous system, and sudden discontinuation can disrupt the balance of neurotransmitters, leading to hyperexcitability and potential seizure activity. Option A) depression is incorrect because abrupt baclofen withdrawal is not typically associated with depressive symptoms. Option B) drowsiness is also incorrect as withdrawal is more likely to cause an increase in arousal state rather than drowsiness. Option C) headache is an unlikely symptom of baclofen withdrawal compared to the more serious risk of seizures. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of gradual tapering when discontinuing medications that act on the central nervous system to prevent withdrawal symptoms. It also emphasizes the need for healthcare providers to be aware of potential adverse effects of medication withdrawal to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding swaddling, one of the following is correct
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, swaddling plays a crucial role in soothing infants and promoting better sleep patterns. Option B, "swaddling is effective if practiced before a crying episode," is the correct answer in this scenario. Swaddling a baby before they start crying helps in preventing overstimulation and promotes a sense of security and comfort for the infant, leading to a calmer state. This practice can also help in establishing a bedtime routine and aiding in the self-soothing process for the baby. Option A, stating that swaddling is effective during a crying episode, is incorrect because by the time a baby is already crying, it may be challenging to calm them down solely through swaddling. Option C, claiming that there is no place for swaddling to calm a crying infant, is incorrect as swaddling has been shown to be an effective technique in calming fussy or colicky infants. Option D, suggesting that swaddling may interfere with vascular supply, is also incorrect as long as swaddling is done correctly, ensuring that the baby's circulation is not compromised. Educationally, understanding the correct timing and technique of swaddling is essential for healthcare providers, caregivers, and parents to promote the well-being of infants. By knowing when and how to swaddle effectively, they can enhance the comfort and sleep quality of the baby, leading to better overall care and development.
Question 5 of 5
Children with ALL who carry poor outcome include all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric oncology, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) is the most common type of childhood cancer. Children with ALL who carry a poor outcome often present with specific risk factors. The correct answer, option C, hyperdiploidy chromosomal abnormality, is not associated with a poor outcome in ALL. Hyperdiploidy is actually a favorable prognostic factor as it is linked to a better response to treatment and improved outcomes. Option A, age younger than 1 year and older than 10 years, is associated with a poor outcome in ALL because younger children often have more aggressive forms of the disease, while older children may have treatment-related complications or higher relapse rates. Option B, T-cell immunophenotype, is also linked to a poor outcome due to its association with higher resistance to treatment and increased risk of relapse. Option D, initial leukocyte count of > 50,000, is a poor prognostic factor as it indicates a higher tumor burden and is associated with a more aggressive disease course. In an educational context, understanding the prognostic factors in pediatric ALL is crucial for healthcare providers involved in the care of children with cancer. This knowledge can guide treatment decisions, help predict outcomes, and tailor therapies to improve patient outcomes. It is essential for nurses, physicians, and other healthcare professionals to be well-versed in these prognostic factors to provide optimal care and support to pediatric patients with ALL.