ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is NOT an action of H1 receptor antagonist:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: H1 receptor antagonists, also known as antihistamines, primarily work by blocking the effects of histamine in the body. Histamine is involved in allergic reactions, itching, and motion sickness. Therefore, H1 receptor antagonists are commonly used for the treatment of allergic reactions, relief of itching, and prophylaxis of motion sickness. They are also sometimes used for the common cold to alleviate symptoms such as runny nose and sneezing. However, H1 receptor antagonists are not typically used as the main treatment for asthma, as they are not as effective in addressing the underlying inflammation and bronchoconstriction that occur in asthma. Asthma is usually managed with medications such as bronchodilators and corticosteroids that target the specific inflammatory pathways involved in asthma.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse assumes care of a patient in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). The patient had abdominal surgery and is receiving intravenous morphine sulfate for pain. The patient is asleep and has not voided since prior to surgery. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute and notes hypoactive bowel sounds. The nurse will contact the surgeon primarily to report which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary concern in this scenario is respiratory depression. The patient receiving intravenous morphine sulfate with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates hypoventilation, which can progress to respiratory failure. This poses a critical risk to the patient's safety and requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications, such as respiratory arrest. Contacting the surgeon to report this condition is essential for prompt assessment and appropriate management. While paralytic ileus, somnolence, and urinary retention are also potential concerns, respiratory depression takes precedence due to its life-threatening nature.
Question 3 of 9
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 4 of 9
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 5 of 9
What would be the teaching priority for a diabetic patient being treated with a nonselective beta-blocker?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because the beta-blockers stop the signs and symptoms of a sympathetic stress reaction, the signs and symptoms associated with hypo- or hyperglycemia, the diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker will need to understand this and learn new indicators of these reactions. Taking his pulse, weekly weighing, and avoiding smoke-filled rooms are good health practices and should be done, but not specifically needed by a diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker. The nurse should emphasize the importance of recognizing new signs of blood glucose fluctuations.
Question 6 of 9
Following surgery, a client is placed on cefotaxime (Claforan). The assessment for possible adverse effects should include observing for
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cefotaxime is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used to treat bacterial infections post-surgery. One of its most significant and frequent adverse effects is disruption of the gastrointestinal flora, which can lead to diarrhea, including potentially severe conditions like Clostridioides difficile-associated diarrhea. This makes monitoring for diarrhea a critical nursing action, as it can indicate a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While headache, constipation, and tachycardia can occur with various medications, they are less commonly associated with cefotaxime compared to diarrhea. Headache might suggest a neurological issue or dehydration, constipation could relate to immobility post-surgery rather than the drug itself, and tachycardia might indicate an allergic reaction or systemic issue, but these are not the primary concerns with this antibiotic. Diarrhea, however, directly correlates with cefotaxime's impact on gut microbiota, making it the priority observation for adverse effects in this scenario, thus supporting choice A as the correct answer.
Question 7 of 9
A client is prescribed an intranasal corticosteroid. What should the nurse include in client education about this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Intranasal corticosteroids cause burning and nosebleeds . They're preventive (choice B wrong), dosing is fixed (choice C wrong). D educates on side effects, making it key.
Question 8 of 9
A client takes calcium three times a day in the form of supplements. The nurse will advise the client to take the drug
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium absorbs best with food-fat aids uptake, per pharmacokinetics-unlike empty stomach or tea (tannins bind). Zinc competes-separate dosing. Food optimizes, per guidance.
Question 9 of 9
When counseling a male patient about the possible adverse effects of antihypertensive drugs, the nurse will discuss which potential problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: One potential adverse effect of antihypertensive drugs, particularly beta-blockers and diuretics, is impotence. Antihypertensive medications can affect sexual function in males by causing erectile dysfunction or impotence due to their mechanism of action on blood vessels and circulation. It is important for the nurse to inform the patient about this possible side effect so that appropriate management strategies or alternative treatment options can be discussed. Impotence can have a significant impact on a patient's quality of life and adherence to medication, so open communication and education are essential in managing this issue.