ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is NOT a source of pain in labour?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Uterine contractions are a physiological process in labor causing pain due to muscle contractions. Step 2: Cervical dilatation involves the opening of the cervix, which can cause pain and discomfort. Step 3: Pelvic floor stretching occurs as the baby moves through the birth canal, leading to pain. Step 4: Socio-cultural norms do not directly cause physical pain in labor, making choice B the correct answer. Other choices directly relate to physical processes causing pain.
Question 2 of 9
Prior to taking a patient for an emergency cesarean section, it is MOST important to assess that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because establishing an intravenous line is essential for immediate access to administer fluids, medications, and blood products during the emergency cesarean section. This step ensures that the patient's vital signs can be supported, and any emergent interventions can be readily delivered. A: While informed consent is important, in an emergency situation, the priority is to ensure the patient's immediate medical needs are met. B: Inserting a Foley's catheter may be necessary during the procedure, but it is not the most critical assessment prior to the cesarean section. D: Shaving the perineal area is not a priority in an emergency situation and may be done during the preparation for surgery.
Question 3 of 9
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.
Question 4 of 9
Mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TB can be transmitted from an infected mother to her child during labor. Step 2: The TB bacteria can be present in the mother's respiratory secretions. Step 3: During labor, the baby can inhale these bacteria and contract TB. Step 4: Therefore, the statement that mother-to-child transmission of TB organisms never occurs during labor is FALSE. Summary: Option B is correct because it accurately reflects the possibility of mother-to-child transmission of TB during labor. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the factual information. Options C and D are not applicable as they provide no information.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Costigan is a 50-year-old male patient who recently had a screening colonoscopy because it was recommended by his primary care provider as a screening measure. He received a report that noted inflammatory polyps. He is concerned because one of his friends had polyps that turned into cancer. While advising Mr. Costigan, the AGACNP tells him that
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Family history of colon cancer is a significant risk factor for developing colon cancer. Step 2: By discussing with his parents, Mr. Costigan can determine if there is a family history of colon cancer. Step 3: Knowing this information can help assess his own risk and guide appropriate screening and preventive measures. Step 4: The primary danger for Mr. Costigan lies in potential genetic predisposition rather than the presence of inflammatory polyps. Step 5: Therefore, discussing with family members about any history of colon cancer is crucial for his overall risk assessment and management. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as the frequency of colonoscopy should be individualized based on the patient's risk factors. - Choice C is incorrect as all polyps have the potential to become cancerous, especially inflammatory polyps. - Choice D is incorrect as consulting an oncologist at this stage is premature without first assessing family history.
Question 6 of 9
Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are most commonly caused by
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rotational injury. Flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine are often caused by rotational forces that occur during accidents such as motor vehicle collisions or falls. These forces lead to the spine being twisted, causing separation of the vertebrae. Blunt trauma (A) can cause various spinal injuries but is not specific to flexion-distraction injuries. Seat belts (C) are designed to prevent spinal injuries by restraining the body during a collision. Gunshot wounds (D) can cause spinal cord injuries but are not commonly associated with flexion-distraction injuries of the thoracolumbar spine.
Question 7 of 9
K. T. presents for a routine wellness examination, and the review of systems is significant only for a markedly decreased capacity for intake and a vague sense of nausea after eating. K. T. denies any other symptoms the remainder of the GI review of systems is negative. His medical history is significant for complicated peptic ulcer disease that finally required resection for a perforated ulcer. The AGACNP advises the patient that
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. The patient's symptoms of decreased capacity for intake and nausea after eating suggest gastroparesis, a common complication post-ulcer surgery. 2. Given the history of complicated peptic ulcer disease and prior surgery, medication may be ineffective, necessitating potential reoperation. 3. The AGACNP advises that another surgery may be needed, indicating that medication alone may not suffice to address the issue. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endoscopy is not necessary at this point as the symptoms are likely indicative of a functional issue rather than a structural problem. B: While gastroparesis can occur post-ulcer surgery, the patient's symptoms are more suggestive of gastroparesis rather than chronic gastroparesis as a known complication. D: The frequency of occurrence of symptoms after ulcer surgery is not relevant to the current management of the patient's symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
Question 9 of 9
What is the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because skin-to-skin contact after birth offers multiple benefits. Firstly, it helps stabilize the baby's temperature by utilizing the parent's body heat. Secondly, it promotes bonding between the parent and baby through physical closeness and touch. Finally, it can regulate the baby's heartbeat by providing a calming and reassuring environment. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in highlighting the significance of skin-to-skin contact after birth.