ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
Hyperkalemia is associated with
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is associated with diminished renal function because the kidneys play a crucial role in regulating potassium levels in the body. When renal function is impaired, the kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium effectively, leading to elevated potassium levels in the blood. - Choice A (Increase BP) is incorrect because hyperkalemia is not directly associated with increased blood pressure. - Choice B (Alpha-blockers) is incorrect as alpha-blockers are not typically linked to hyperkalemia. - Choice D (Loop diuretics) is incorrect as loop diuretics can actually lower potassium levels, not cause hyperkalemia.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage
Question 4 of 9
Mrs. Gloth is an 84-year-old woman whom you are admitting to the nursing home. Her son takes you aside and tells you that she has metastatic ovarian cancer but has not been told the diagnosis. He asks that you not tell her, because she would “lose all hope and die.” Which of the following is an appropriate response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suggest that you discuss this further after getting to know the patient and family a little better. This response allows the healthcare provider to gather more information about the patient's beliefs, values, and preferences before making a decision. It demonstrates respect for the autonomy of the patient and involves a collaborative approach with the family. It also allows time to assess the patient's emotional and psychological readiness to receive the diagnosis. Incorrect answers: A: This answer disregards the patient's autonomy and does not consider the emotional impact of delivering such news without proper assessment. B: While respecting the son's wishes is important, prioritizing the patient's well-being and autonomy should come first. D: Relying solely on the family's perspective without considering the patient's own wishes and understanding may lead to ethical issues and potential harm to the patient.
Question 5 of 9
A 78-year-old male is being treated for hypertension. The nurse knows that the most appropriate first-line therapy in older adults is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diuretics. In older adults, diuretics are considered the most appropriate first-line therapy for hypertension due to their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and preventing complications such as heart failure. Diuretics are well-tolerated, have a long history of use, and are cost-effective. They are especially beneficial in older adults with volume overload or fluid retention. Beta-blockers (B) may be less effective in older adults and can have more side effects. ACE inhibitors (C) are commonly used but may pose risks of hyperkalemia and renal dysfunction in older adults. Calcium channel blockers (D) are effective but may increase the risk of falls and fractures in older adults.
Question 6 of 9
A 79-year-old client is admitted with pneumonia. Which symptom would most likely indicate the need for further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest pain and pleuritic breathing. This indicates possible complications like pleurisy or pleural effusion, requiring further evaluation. A: Persistent cough with sputum production is common in pneumonia. C: Shortness of breath is a typical symptom of pneumonia. D: Fever and chills are also common in pneumonia. However, chest pain and pleuritic breathing are more indicative of potential complications that may require immediate attention.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is true about cultural humility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cultural humility emphasizes recognizing power imbalances and fostering interpersonal sensitivity through partnerships with and learning from patients. This approach encourages self-awareness, openness, and willingness to engage in respectful dialogues. Option A is incorrect because cultural humility is not solely achieved through professional development courses. Option B is incorrect as anyone, regardless of their background, can practice cultural humility. Option D is incorrect as cultural humility does consider the impacts of structural factors on health disparities, including biological, socioeconomic, and racial influences.
Question 8 of 9
A 19-year-old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Meningitis typically presents with neck stiffness due to meningeal irritation. In choice C, the patient has a tender neck to palpation and is unable to perform range of motion, indicating meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D all describe a normal head and fundi exam, which is not consistent with meningitis. Choice B mentions muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right, but this is more suggestive of a musculoskeletal issue rather than meningitis. Choice D describes a normal neck exam, which is not in line with the presentation of meningitis.
Question 9 of 9
An 85-year-old woman with congestive heart failure and frailty asks about hastening her death. Which of the following is legal throughout the United States?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voluntary stopping of eating and drinking. This is legal throughout the United States because it is considered a patient's right to refuse food and water, even if it may lead to death. This decision is based on the principle of patient autonomy and respects the patient's wishes. Euthanasia (A) involves actively causing death, which is illegal in the United States. Palliative sedation (B) is providing medication to relieve suffering, but not with the intention of hastening death. Physician-assisted death (D) involves a physician providing medication for a patient to self-administer to end their life, which is not legal in all states.