ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is not a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are not known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms, which are more commonly associated with antipsychotic medications. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, irritation, and hyponatremia in older adults due to their effects on serotonin levels and platelet function. Extrapyramidal symptoms involve movement disorders like tremors and muscle rigidity, which are not typically seen with SSRIs. Therefore, A is the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
A 20-year-old male living in a college dorm complains of a dry cough for the past month. Assessment findings associated with atypical, community-acquired pneumonia would include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because atypical, community-acquired pneumonia often presents with subtle symptoms like a low-grade fever and malaise. Clear lung fields on auscultation are typical as atypical pneumonia affects the interstitium rather than the alveoli. Choice B is incorrect as crackles throughout the lung fields are indicative of typical pneumonia affecting the alveoli. Choice C is incorrect because a sore throat is not a typical symptom of atypical pneumonia, and diminished breath sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia. Choice D is incorrect because a temperature of 102°F and dyspnea are more indicative of a more severe pneumonia, and diminished lung sounds are not typically associated with atypical pneumonia.
Question 3 of 9
Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine are neurotransmitters commonly associated with mood regulation. Medications that affect these neurotransmitters can lead to symptoms of depression as a side effect. B: Gabapentin is not primarily associated with mood regulation. C: Milnacipran is an SNRI used to treat depression, not cause it. D: Cortisol is a stress hormone, not a neurotransmitter directly linked to depression symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
What term describes the rhythmic, involuntary contractions of a muscle that can occur in patients with neurological conditions, such as cerebral palsy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonus. Clonus is a series of rhythmic, involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that occur due to an abnormal response in the stretch reflex. In patients with neurological conditions like cerebral palsy, clonus is often observed due to increased muscle tone. Tremor (A) is a rhythmic shaking movement, not specifically associated with muscle contractions. Spasm (C) is a sudden, involuntary muscle contraction that is not typically rhythmic. Fasciculation (D) is a brief, spontaneous contraction of a small number of muscle fibers, not the rhythmic pattern seen in clonus.
Question 5 of 9
An 80-year-old woman that you follow in a nursing home has an acute decline in her mental status. She has a fever >100°F, but no other focal complaints or findings on physical examination except for a chronic indwelling urinary catheter. What statement is true?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in an older adult with an indwelling urinary catheter, a fever >100°F can be a sign of urinary tract infection (UTI) or urosepsis. Given her acute decline in mental status and fever, empiric antibiotic therapy is warranted to treat a potential infection. Choice B is incorrect because older adults with indwelling catheters are at increased risk for UTIs and bloodstream infections. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a urine culture is important to confirm the diagnosis and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. Choice D is incorrect as the duration of antibiotic treatment for a UTI is typically longer than 3 days.
Question 6 of 9
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.
Question 7 of 9
A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Exophthalmos. Exophthalmos refers to protrusion of the eyeball, which is a hallmark sign of thyroid eye disease. This condition commonly presents with forward bulging of one or both eyes due to inflammation and swelling of the eye muscles and tissues behind the eye. It is often associated with hyperthyroidism. A: Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. C: Ectropion is an outward turning of the eyelid, not protrusion of the eyeball. D: Epicanthus is a vertical fold of skin on the upper eyelid near the nose, not protrusion of the eyeball.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Roberts, a 72-year-old patient who has sought medical care on an intermittent basis in the past, complains of aching discomfort in his perineal area, urinary urgency, and frequency for the past few years. He also complains of insomnia and intermittent anxiety that he attributes to loneliness after his wife’s death about a year ago. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a slightly enlarged, nontender prostate with no palpable nodules. Perineal examination is normal. Bladder scan is unremarkable and postvoid residual urine volume is 50 mL. Urinalysis shows no WBCs or RBCs. Urine culture is negative. Previous treatment has included dietary modifications and alpha-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Screen for depression. The patient's symptoms of insomnia, anxiety, and loneliness after his wife's death suggest he may be experiencing depression, which can manifest as physical symptoms like urinary urgency and frequency. Since the patient has already received appropriate treatment for his urinary symptoms, addressing his mental health is the next crucial step. This can help improve his overall well-being and quality of life. Starting an antibiotic course (choice A) is not indicated as there are no signs of infection. Initiating a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (choice B) is not necessary given the absence of specific indications such as obstructive voiding symptoms. Urodynamic testing (choice C) is not warranted at this stage as the patient's history and findings do not suggest underlying bladder dysfunction.
Question 9 of 9
You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dry and rough. In hypothyroidism, there is reduced secretion of sweat and oils, leading to dry skin. The lack of hydration causes the skin to become rough. This correlates with the clinical presentation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss, which are common symptoms of hypothyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because moisture is reduced in hypothyroidism, resulting in dry skin. Choice C is incorrect because the lack of oils in hypothyroidism leads to rough skin texture, not smooth.