ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is not a characteristic of quality improvement that the medical director is interested in?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Quality improvement focuses on proactive measures rather than reactive responses. The medical director would be more interested in establishing processes and systems that prevent issues from occurring in the first place, rather than just reacting to problems as they arise. Continuous improvement involves identifying problems, analyzing root causes, and implementing long-term solutions to prevent the issues from recurring. Therefore, reacting to correct or bad situations is not a characteristic of quality improvement that the medical director would prioritize.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for the treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) for the treatment of GERD should be closely monitored for the development of osteoporosis. PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoporotic fractures, particularly in long-term users. This risk is thought to be due to decreased calcium absorption as stomach acidity is reduced by PPIs, leading to potential alterations in bone metabolism and density. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to assess bone health, educate patients on calcium and vitamin D supplementation, and consider other risk factors for osteoporosis in individuals taking PPIs long-term. While hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and Clostridium difficile infection may be seen as adverse effects with other medications or conditions, osteoporosis is the adverse effect most closely monitored in patients taking PPIs for GERD.
Question 4 of 9
Joji, l7 years old, is admitted in a private room due to influenza. In one of Nurse Nilda's conversations with Joji, the patient expressed is unhappiness with the program he is taking up in college. This is not his choice but rather the choice of his parents. In which of Erikson 's stage of development does this case fall?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the stage of Identity versus Role Confusion occurs during adolescence, which is typically around the ages of 12 to 18 years old. This stage is characterized by the individual exploring and developing their personal identity, values, and beliefs.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with osteoarthritis of the knee experiences persistent pain and functional limitation despite conservative management. Which surgical procedure is commonly performed to alleviate symptoms and improve function in such cases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Total knee arthroplasty (TKA), also known as total knee replacement, is a surgical procedure commonly performed to alleviate symptoms and improve function in patients with advanced osteoarthritis of the knee that has not responded to conservative management. During TKA, the damaged cartilage and bone in the knee joint are removed and replaced with prosthetic components. This procedure aims to reduce pain, restore function, and improve the quality of life for individuals with severe osteoarthritis of the knee. High tibial osteotomy (HTO) is typically performed in younger patients with unicompartmental osteoarthritis, while knee arthroscopy and meniscectomy are more targeted towards specific knee conditions and may not provide significant relief in cases of advanced osteoarthritis.
Question 6 of 9
If more than one vaccine is given, the following guidelines should be observed, EXCEPT.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is NOT recommended to use the same syringe and needle in administering two different vaccines. This is to prevent contamination or mixing of different vaccines, which could potentially affect their effectiveness or pose a risk to the individual receiving the vaccines. It is important to use separate syringes and needles for each vaccine to ensure proper administration and prevent any adverse reactions.
Question 7 of 9
A patient presents with multiple, dome-shaped, translucent papules with central umbilication on the face and trunk. The lesions are asymptomatic and have been gradually increasing in number. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by the poxvirus. It typically presents as multiple dome-shaped, translucent papules with central umbilication on the face and trunk. The lesions are usually asymptomatic but can be itchy. Molluscum contagiosum is a common infection in children but can also occur in adults, especially those who are immunocompromised. The lesions can gradually increase in number over time. Basal cell carcinoma, sebaceous hyperplasia, and keratoacanthoma do not typically present with the characteristic features of molluscum contagiosum.
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Adalynn discusses the possibilities of future postpartum hemorrhage with the patients. Which of the following increases the absorption of vitamin K?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fats are essential for the absorption of vitamin K in the body. Vitamin K is a fat-soluble vitamin, meaning it is better absorbed in the presence of dietary fats. In the case of postpartum hemorrhage, adequate levels of vitamin K are crucial for proper blood clotting. Thus, incorporating fats in the diet can help ensure sufficient absorption of vitamin K, which can be beneficial in preventing complications related to hemorrhage.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. On examination, there is neck stiffness and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms described - sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs - are classic manifestations of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, often caused by infection. The sudden onset of these symptoms and signs, along with neck stiffness and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs (indicative of meningeal irritation), strongly suggest meningitis as the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.