ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is not a bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cell-wall regrowth. This is not a bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanism because antibiotics target specific components in bacteria, such as cell wall synthesis, making regrowth impossible in the presence of antibiotics. Reduced permeability (A) decreases antibiotic entry, Over-expression of target (C) reduces antibiotic effectiveness, and Efflux pump (D) actively removes antibiotics from the cell, all contributing to antibiotic resistance. In summary, cell-wall regrowth is not a mechanism of antibiotic resistance, unlike the other choices that actively promote bacterial survival against antibiotics.
Question 2 of 9
One of the basic principles of chemotherapy is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Selective toxicity. Chemotherapy aims to target cancer cells while minimizing harm to healthy cells, known as selective toxicity. This principle is crucial to effectively treat cancer without causing excessive damage to the patient's body. Accumulation in the macroorganism (B) and causing allergies (C) are not fundamental principles of chemotherapy and can lead to harmful side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the core objective of chemotherapy.
Question 3 of 9
Warts are commonly caused by the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Warts are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) due to its ability to infect the skin. 2. HPV infects the top layer of skin and causes the rapid growth of cells, leading to the formation of warts. 3. Herpesvirus (choice B) causes herpes, not warts. 4. HIV (choice C) weakens the immune system but does not directly cause warts. 5. Varicella-zoster virus (choice D) causes chickenpox and shingles, not warts. Summary: Choice A is correct as warts are primarily caused by HPV, which infects the skin cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are associated with different viral infections that do not lead to the development of warts.
Question 4 of 9
Poxviruses are the largest viruses, almost visible on a light microscope.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Poxviruses are indeed the largest viruses, ranging from 200-450 nm in size, which is close to the resolution limit of a light microscope. This makes them almost visible under a light microscope. The other choices are incorrect because poxviruses are not smaller or uncertain in size (choices B and C), nor are they partially visible - they are almost visible due to their relatively large size.
Question 5 of 9
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 6 of 9
A 34 year old male patient consulted a doctor about face carbuncle. Objectively: a loose, painless edema of hypodermic tissue; black crust in the center of carbuncle, vesicular rash around it. Microbiological examination revealed static streptobacilli capable of capsule building. What microorganisms are the causative agents of this disease?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is a common causative agent of skin infections like carbuncles. Staphylococcus aureus is known for its ability to produce pus-filled abscesses, which aligns with the symptoms described in the question. The presence of a vesicular rash around the carbuncle further supports this diagnosis, as Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin lesions. The other choices are not correct because: A: Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, which presents with different symptoms such as fever, malaise, and respiratory symptoms. C: Bacillus subtilis is a harmless soil bacterium commonly used in research and not known to cause skin infections. D: Bacillus anthracoides is not a known pathogen and is not associated with human infections.
Question 7 of 9
A dentist examined a 5-year-old boy and found him to have a saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull. Both front maxillary incisors are peg-shaped and have a crescent-shaped notch in the cutting edge. Lymph nodes are not changed. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Late congenital syphilis. The symptoms described align with late congenital syphilis, which includes saddle nose, high-arched palate, natiform skull, peg-shaped incisors, and notched cutting edge. Lymph nodes not being affected is also consistent with late congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis (B) typically presents with more severe symptoms at birth or shortly after. Tertiary syphilis (C) usually occurs years after initial infection and presents with different symptoms. Fluorosis (D) is caused by excessive fluoride intake and does not match the symptoms described.
Question 8 of 9
After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.
Question 9 of 9
A centrifugate of urine sample obtained from patient with suspected renal tuberculosis was used to make a slide mount for microscopy. What method should be used to stain the slide and detect the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zielh-Neelsen stain. This stain is specifically used to detect acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of renal tuberculosis. The staining process involves using carbol fuchsin to penetrate the mycolic acid layer of the bacterial cell wall, making it resistant to decolorization with acid-alcohol. This allows the red stained bacteria to be visualized under a microscope. Loeffler stain (B) is used for staining bacteria like diphtheria bacilli, Gram stain (C) is used for bacterial classification based on cell wall properties, and Aujeszky stain (D) is not a recognized staining method for detecting acid-fast bacteria.