Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that typically leads to symptoms such as dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation. Dilated pupils occur due to increased catecholamines. Pacing and psychomotor agitation are common behaviors associated with cocaine use. Unsteady gait and aggressiveness (Option B) are more characteristic of alcohol intoxication. Pupil constriction, lethargy, apathy, and dysphoria (Option C) are typical symptoms of opioid use. Constricted pupils, euphoria, and decreased temperature (Option D) are more indicative of opioid use as well.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, bronchodilators are the first-line treatment to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow. They work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, allowing the client to breathe easier. Administering corticosteroids (choices B and C) is important but typically done after bronchodilators to reduce airway inflammation. Encouraging fluid intake (choice D) is not the priority in an acute asthma attack, as the focus should be on addressing the breathing difficulty promptly.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient with severe injuries is brought to the emergency department, the nurse should prioritize performing a physical examination and initiating lifesaving measures while asking history questions simultaneously. This approach allows for immediate assessment and intervention to address any life-threatening conditions. Gathering history information while performing the examination ensures that critical details are not missed and helps in making timely decisions. Choosing option A could delay lifesaving interventions, while option C is not a priority during the initial assessment of a critically injured patient. Option D is incorrect as it prioritizes lifesaving measures over obtaining important history information during the initial assessment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental. Nursing assessments typically include physical, focused, and emergency assessments. Mental assessments are more commonly associated with psychiatric nursing rather than general nursing assessments. Mental assessments focus on assessing a patient's mental status, emotions, and cognitive functions, which are not typically part of routine nursing assessments. Therefore, mental assessments do not fall under the types of assessments typically performed by general nurses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Iron, folic acid, and B12) Rationale: 1. Iron: Renal failure patients often have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production. 2. Folic acid and B12: Important for red blood cell production and maturation. 3. Corrects underlying causes of anemia in renal failure patients. Summary: B: Increasing protein doesn't directly address anemia in renal failure. C: Vitamin D and calcium are not primary treatments for anemia in renal failure. D: Calcium and folic acid alone do not address the specific deficiencies seen in renal failure anemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diagnostic hypothesis. Nurses use diagnostic reasoning to formulate diagnostic hypotheses based on patient data and clinical judgment. They analyze symptoms and data to generate potential diagnoses. Choice A, nursing diagnosis, involves identifying patient problems related to nursing care. Choice B, medical diagnosis, is made by physicians to identify diseases or medical conditions. Choice D, diagnostic assessment, refers to the process of collecting and analyzing data to make a diagnosis. Diagnostic hypothesis aligns with the process of diagnostic reasoning in nursing practice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking open-ended questions helps the patient express their feelings without feeling pressured. This approach allows the patient to share at their own pace and comfort level. Choice A may make the patient feel uncomfortable or pressured. Choice B may not address the underlying issue of the patient's avoidance of eye contact. Choice D is more direct and may not be effective if the patient is not ready to discuss their emotions. Ultimately, using open-ended questions promotes a safe and supportive environment for the patient to open up willingly.