Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Questions 84

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Question 2 of 9

What should the nurse do when a client is experiencing hyperglycemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, administer insulin, because hyperglycemia indicates high blood sugar levels which can be effectively lowered by administering insulin. Insulin helps to move glucose from the blood into cells for energy production. Administering fluids (B) can be helpful for dehydration, but it does not directly address the high blood sugar levels. Encouraging activity (C) may help lower blood sugar levels over time, but in the immediate situation, administering insulin is more effective. Encouraging deep breathing (D) does not directly address hyperglycemia and would not be the appropriate first step in managing this condition.

Question 3 of 9

While taking a detailed history, what should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Functional status. Including functional status in the history is essential as it provides information about the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. This information is crucial for assessing the client's overall health and well-being. Functional status helps the nurse understand the impact of health issues on the client's daily life and helps in planning appropriate care interventions. B: Data focusing on the client complaint is too narrow and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status. C: A focused assessment of the client complaint may overlook other important aspects of the client's health that could impact their overall well-being. D: Family history for the past three generations is not typically included in a detailed history-taking process and may not be directly relevant to the client's current health status.

Question 4 of 9

Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor the patient for signs of which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial as warfarin increases the risk of bleeding events. Signs of bleeding may include easy bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool. Hypertension (B), hyperglycemia (C), and hypokalemia (D) are not direct effects of warfarin. Monitoring for these conditions may be important for other medications or conditions, but they are not the primary concern when a patient is prescribed warfarin.

Question 6 of 9

What is the most appropriate action when a client presents with acute abdominal pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor blood pressure. When a client presents with acute abdominal pain, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as it can help assess for potential complications like hypovolemic shock or internal bleeding. Changes in blood pressure may indicate worsening condition and prompt the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring vital signs (A) is important but blood pressure takes precedence in this scenario. Assessing abdominal tenderness (B) is valuable but does not directly address potential life-threatening issues. Monitoring for dehydration (D) is also important but not the most immediate concern in the case of acute abdominal pain.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. A symptom is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the patient. Chest pain is a subjective sensation that a patient reports, making it a symptom. Clammy skin, serum potassium level, and temperature are all objective signs or measurements, not subjective experiences reported by the patient. Symptoms are what the patient feels or experiences, while signs are objective findings that can be measured or observed by healthcare providers.

Question 8 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a severe burn?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cover the burn site with a clean, dry dressing. This intervention helps protect the burn from infection, promotes healing, and reduces pain. Ice can further damage the skin. Pain medication may be needed but does not address wound care. Maintaining a sterile dressing is crucial, but covering with a clean, dry dressing is more practical and achievable in most settings.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with a history of stroke about reducing the risk of another stroke. Which of the following lifestyle changes should the nurse emphasize?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. This is the best choice because reducing the risk of another stroke requires a holistic approach. A: Limiting sodium and cholesterol intake helps manage blood pressure and cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of stroke. B: Increasing physical activity and managing weight can improve cardiovascular health and overall well-being, reducing the risk of stroke. C: Taking prescribed medications regularly, such as blood thinners or antihypertensives, is crucial in preventing another stroke. In summary, all three choices address key risk factors for stroke prevention, making them essential components of a comprehensive stroke prevention plan.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days