ATI RN
hesi health assessment test bank 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 2 of 5
Which action is most important for a nurse caring for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the client. This is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. Moving a client with a suspected spinal cord injury can worsen the injury and lead to permanent damage. Immobilizing the client helps maintain spinal alignment and reduces the risk of paralysis. Providing pain relief (B) and loosening clothing (D) are important but secondary actions. Applying pressure to the chest (C) is not recommended for a suspected spinal cord injury as it can also exacerbate the injury.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. A symptom is a subjective indication of a condition experienced by the patient. Chest pain is a subjective sensation that a patient reports, making it a symptom. Clammy skin, serum potassium level, and temperature are all objective signs or measurements, not subjective experiences reported by the patient. Symptoms are what the patient feels or experiences, while signs are objective findings that can be measured or observed by healthcare providers.
Question 4 of 5
Which medication should be used to treat anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. It is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses severe allergic reactions by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Diphenhydramine (B) and steroids (C) are used as adjunct therapies but do not provide immediate relief like epinephrine. Albuterol (D) is used for bronchospasm in asthma, not for anaphylaxis. In summary, epinephrine is the most effective and life-saving medication for treating anaphylaxis.
Question 5 of 5
Which assessment finding indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.
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