ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 2 of 9
A colleague is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has ear pain and asks him to hold his nose and swallow. Which of the following about this technique is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to hold his nose and swallow causes the eustachian tube to open, equalizing pressure in the middle ear. This action will cause the eardrum to bulge slightly outward, making landmarks more visible. Choice A is incorrect as age alone does not preclude the use of this technique. Choice B is incorrect because this technique is not primarily used for assessing otitis media. Choice C is incorrect as it is not specific to upper respiratory infections.
Question 3 of 9
When assessing the tongue of an adult, an abnormal finding would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a smooth, glossy dorsal surface of the tongue is abnormal in adults and may indicate glossitis or nutritional deficiencies. B is incorrect as a thin white coating is normal. Raised papillae (choice C) may indicate transient lingual papillitis but are not typically abnormal. Visible venous patterns (choice D) are normal on the ventral surface.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following should be assessed first in a client with a high fever?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check for dehydration. When a client has a high fever, assessing for dehydration is crucial because fever can lead to increased fluid loss through sweating and increased respiratory rate. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's condition and needs to be addressed promptly. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice A) and pulse (choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to identify dehydration. Obtaining a blood sample (choice B) may be necessary at some point but is not the initial priority in a client with a high fever. Thus, checking for dehydration should be assessed first to ensure proper management of the client's condition.
Question 5 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he has noticed pain in his left ear when people speak loudly to him. The nurse knows that this finding:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain in the ear when people speak loudly can be a sign of a middle ear infection. This is due to increased pressure in the middle ear caused by inflammation or fluid buildup. Recruitment (B) is a phenomenon related to hearing loss, not ear pain. Cerumen impaction (D) would not typically cause pain in response to loud sounds. It is not normal for a person of that age to experience ear pain when people speak loudly (A).
Question 6 of 9
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 7 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 8 of 9
A mother who has brought her newborn infant for assessment tells the nurse that she has noticed that whenever her newborn's head is turned to the right side, the baby straightens out the arm and leg on the same side and flexes the opposite arm and leg. After confirming this on examination, the nurse would tell the mother that this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The described behavior is known as the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), a normal infantile reflex. Step 2: The ATNR typically emerges around birth and should disappear between 3 and 4 months of age. Step 3: The reflex helps with hand-eye coordination and development of body awareness. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect as the behavior is not abnormal or related to atonic neck reflex. Step 5: Choice B is incorrect as the reflex typically disappears by 3-4 months, not by the first year of life. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as it describes a different pattern of movement than what is observed in the ATNR. Summary: The correct answer is C because the behavior described is a normal infantile reflex that typically disappears between 3-4 months of age, aiding in the baby's development.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.