Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the client. This is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. Moving a client with a suspected spinal cord injury can worsen the injury and lead to permanent damage. Immobilizing the client helps maintain spinal alignment and reduces the risk of paralysis. Providing pain relief (B) and loosening clothing (D) are important but secondary actions. Applying pressure to the chest (C) is not recommended for a suspected spinal cord injury as it can also exacerbate the injury.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step is to immobilize the spine (A) in a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. This helps to stabilize the spine and prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury. Providing pain relief (B) should come after immobilization. Assessing for signs of spinal shock (C) is important but comes after immobilization. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be part of immobilization but is not the first step.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthostatic hypotension. In a patient with congestive heart failure, there is impaired cardiac function leading to decreased cardiac output. This can result in orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops upon standing. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important to prevent falls and other complications. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. C: Hypoglycemia may occur in patients with diabetes, but it is not a common complication of congestive heart failure. D: Severe dehydration is not directly related to congestive heart failure unless the patient has concurrent issues such as diarrhea or excessive diuresis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when a client develops a fever after surgery is to administer antipyretics (A). Fever post-surgery can indicate infection, and antipyretics help lower the body temperature. Administering pain medications (B) may mask the fever's underlying cause. Providing fluids (C) is essential but not the priority. Providing wound care (D) is important but comes after addressing the fever. Administering antipyretics promptly helps manage the fever and allows for further assessment and intervention if needed.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. The nurse should monitor for signs such as swelling, pain, and redness in the extremities. Pneumonia (A) can occur post-stroke but is not the most common complication. Hypoglycemia (C) is more relevant for diabetic patients. Hypertension (D) is a common comorbidity in stroke patients but monitoring for DVT is crucial due to its immediate life-threatening implications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam is a fast-acting medication that can help reduce the intensity of a panic attack quickly. It works by calming the central nervous system and reducing anxiety symptoms. Encouraging slow, deep breathing (choice A) can be helpful, but it may not be as effective as medication in stopping a severe panic attack. Lying down (choice C) can provide comfort but does not address the underlying physiological response. Breathing into a paper bag (choice D) can actually be harmful as it may lead to hyperventilation.