ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 3 of 9
A 17-year-old single mother is describing how difficult it is to raise a 2-year-old by herself. During the course of the interview, she states, "I can't believe my boyfriend left me to do this by myself! What a terrible thing to do to me!" Which of the following responses by the nurse uses empathy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it reflects empathy by acknowledging the mother's feelings without judgment or personal bias. The nurse shows understanding and compassion by recognizing the difficulty of the situation. Incorrect answer A lacks empathy as it simply restates the mother's feeling without demonstrating understanding. Answer B also lacks empathy as it focuses on the boyfriend's actions rather than the mother's feelings. Answer D shows some empathy by acknowledging the difficulty but fails to address the mother's emotional state directly. In summary, answer C is correct because it shows empathy by acknowledging the mother's emotions and validating her experience without judgment or redirection.
Question 4 of 9
Which nursing measure is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image in a client with Kawasaki disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: explaining progression of the disease to the client and family. This measure helps the client and family understand the disease, leading to better coping and acceptance, thus promoting a positive body image. Administering immune globulin (A) is not directly related to body image. Assessing extremities (B) and heart sounds (D) are important for monitoring the disease but do not directly impact body image.
Question 5 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 6 of 9
What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client experiencing a severe allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer epinephrine. The priority in a severe allergic reaction is to quickly address the life-threatening symptoms like anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment as it helps reverse the effects of the allergic reaction by opening airways and increasing blood pressure. Administering antihistamines (choices B and D) can help relieve itching and hives but are not as effective in treating severe symptoms. Monitoring respiratory status (choice C) is important but administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of diabetes and peripheral neuropathy. The nurse should educate the patient to prioritize which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspecting feet daily for signs of injury. This is crucial for patients with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy to prevent complications like infections and ulcers. By inspecting their feet daily, the patient can identify any injuries or abnormalities early and seek prompt medical attention. This proactive approach can help prevent serious consequences such as amputations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Taking medications only when experiencing symptoms - This is not recommended as medications for diabetes and neuropathy are often prescribed to prevent complications and manage the conditions on a daily basis. C: Exercising to increase foot circulation - While exercise is beneficial, patients with peripheral neuropathy may have decreased sensation in their feet, increasing the risk of injury during exercise. D: Wearing tight-fitting shoes to avoid blisters - Tight-fitting shoes can cause pressure points and increase the risk of foot injuries, especially in patients with neuropathy.
Question 8 of 9
When examining the face, the nurse is aware that the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, parotid and submandibular glands. The parotid and submandibular glands are the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible for examination in the face. The parotid gland is located near the ear, while the submandibular gland is located under the jaw. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Occipital and submental glands are not salivary glands accessible for examination in the face. B: Parotid gland is correct, but jugulodigastric gland is not a salivary gland. D: Submandibular gland is correct, but occipital gland is not a salivary gland.
Question 9 of 9
A woman brings her husband to the clinic for an examination. She is particularly worried because after a recent fall, he seems to have lost a great deal of his memory of recent events. Which of the following statements reflects the nurse's best course of action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because memory loss after a fall can be indicative of a more serious issue like a head injury or neurological problem. A complete mental health examination by the nurse can help assess the extent of memory loss, identify potential causes, and determine appropriate interventions. Referring to a psychometrician (choice B) may not address the immediate health concern. Integrating the mental health examination into history taking and physical examination (choice C) is important but may not be as thorough as a complete mental health examination by a professional. Reassuring the wife that memory loss is normal (choice D) may lead to overlooking a potentially serious health issue.