Which of the following is most likely the common mechanism underlying the therapeutic effectiveness of long-term therapy with most antidepressants drugs?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C because increased expression of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) is a common mechanism underlying the therapeutic effectiveness of long-term therapy with most antidepressants. BDNF promotes neuronal survival, growth, and differentiation, which are essential for mood regulation and combating depression. A: Inhibition of central monoamine metabolism is a common mechanism of action for some antidepressants, but not all. B: Upregulation of central postsynaptic adrenoceptors is not a common mechanism of action for antidepressants. D: Decreased hippocampal neurogenesis is associated with depression, and antidepressants aim to increase neurogenesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bupropion. Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), meaning it blocks the reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine by brain neurons, leading to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain. This mechanism of action is specifically associated with bupropion and not the other choices. Methylphenidate primarily affects dopamine reuptake, Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant that modulates glutamate release, and Aripiprazole is a partial dopamine agonist. Therefore, only bupropion matches the criteria of decreasing reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbamazepine. It is appropriate for a patient planning to become pregnant due to its lower risk of teratogenic effects compared to other antiepileptic drugs. Carbamazepine is also recommended as a first-line treatment for epilepsy in pregnancy. Valproic acid (B) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its high risk of causing neural tube defects. Quetiapine (C) and Haloperidol (D) are antipsychotic drugs not typically used for patients planning to become pregnant.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrochlorothiazide. It is a diuretic commonly used to treat hypertension and edema by increasing urinary output. In this case, it can help alleviate the patient's urinary symptoms by reducing fluid retention. Furosemide (A) is a loop diuretic that may be too potent for this scenario. Amiloride (C) and Spironolactone (D) are potassium-sparing diuretics that may not address the underlying cause of the urinary symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aripiprazole. This drug is an atypical antipsychotic that can be used to treat symptoms of Tourette's syndrome, such as repeated head jerking, blinking, and grimacing. Aripiprazole works by modulating dopamine and serotonin levels in the brain, helping to reduce tics and other involuntary movements. Fluoxetine (A) is an antidepressant, Clonazepam (C) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and seizures, and Naltrexone (D) is used for opioid and alcohol dependence. These drugs are not typically indicated for treating the symptoms described in the patient's condition.