Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?

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Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: One breast larger than the other is most likely benign on breast examination. This is because breast asymmetry is a common and typically benign finding in women. It is important to note that a significant difference in breast size may warrant further evaluation, but in general, slight variations in size are normal. Now, let's discuss why the other choices are incorrect: A: Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange is concerning for peau d'orange appearance, which can be a sign of underlying breast cancer. C: One nipple inverted can be a sign of an underlying breast issue, such as a mass or tumor. D: One breast with a dimple when the patient leans forward can be a sign of an underlying breast abnormality, such as a tumor pulling on the skin. In summary, breast asymmetry (Choice B) is the most likely benign finding, while the other choices may indicate underlying breast issues that require further evaluation.

Question 2 of 5

A young patient presents with a left-sided mass in her abdomen. You confirm that it is present in the left upper quadrant. Which of the following would support that this represents an enlarged kidney rather than her spleen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A palpable "notch" along its edge. This supports an enlarged kidney over the spleen because the kidney has a concave shape with a notch where the renal vessels enter. This notch is palpable in an enlarged kidney. Choice B is incorrect because the inability to push fingers between the mass and the costal margin is indicative of a spleen, which is a solid organ located close to the ribs. Choice C is incorrect as normal tympany over the area suggests gas-filled structures like the stomach or intestines, not a solid organ like the kidney or spleen. Choice D is incorrect as the ability to push fingers medial and deep to the mass would be more typical of an enlarged spleen, which can displace other organs medially due to its size.

Question 3 of 5

You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 3?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3+. Bounding pulses indicate a 3+ strength on a scale of 0 to 3. This reflects increased blood flow or pressure in the arteries, which can be a sign of conditions like peripheral vascular disease. A strength of 0 indicates no palpable pulse, 1+ is weak and thready, 2+ is normal, and 3+ is bounding. In this case, the patient's history of coronary artery disease and diabetes may contribute to the increased blood flow, leading to bounding pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the strength of the pulses based on the given assessment findings.

Question 4 of 5

When assessing temperature of the skin, which portion of your hand should be used?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fingertips. Fingertips are the most sensitive part of the hand, allowing for accurate temperature assessment. They provide better tactile discrimination and are more sensitive to changes in temperature compared to other parts of the hand. Palms have thicker skin and are less sensitive, making them less ideal for temperature assessment. Backs of fingers and ulnar aspect of the hand are also less sensitive than fingertips and lack the precision needed for accurate temperature detection.

Question 5 of 5

A 16-year-old high school junior is brought to your clinic by his father. The teenager was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday when he felt his left testicle it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last 3 days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination you see a teenager in no acute distress. His temperature is 8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this teenager most likely have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle that can cause testicular enlargement and tenderness. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen and sore left testicle, which aligns with the symptoms of orchitis. The patient's history of upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral infection, which can lead to orchitis. The normal prostate exam and urine analysis rule out prostatitis. Acute epididymitis typically presents with pain and swelling in the epididymis, not the testicle itself. Torsion of the spermatic cord would present with sudden, severe testicular pain and is an emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.

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