Which of the following is most likely an indication for serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. SNRIs are commonly prescribed for depression as they work by increasing levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which help regulate mood. In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically indications for SNRIs. CHF (A) is treated with medications that help the heart function better, acute pancreatitis (B) is managed with pain control and supportive care, and autism (D) is managed with behavioral therapies and sometimes medications targeting specific symptoms. Hence, depression (C) is the most likely indication for SNRIs based on their mechanism of action and common therapeutic uses.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Levodopa is the most effective medication for managing the motor symptoms of Parkinson's disease. 2. Carbidopa is often combined with Levodopa to enhance its effectiveness and reduce side effects. 3. The combination of Levodopa and Carbidopa is a standard and widely accepted treatment for Parkinson's disease. 4. Other choices are incorrect: A - Deep brain stimulation is not used to wean off patients from Levodopa; C - Amantadine is not typically used as a monotherapy for Parkinson's disease; D - Dopamine is not a medication but a neurotransmitter, and Levodopa is the preferred treatment over dopamine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because as people age, physiological changes can impact drug metabolism and clearance. Older adults may require a higher dosage to achieve the same therapeutic effect as younger individuals. This is due to factors such as decreased organ function and changes in body composition. Choice B is incorrect because body weight can affect drug distribution and dosing but not always the therapeutic response directly. Choice C is incorrect as smoking can affect drug metabolism but not always result in faster metabolism. Choice D is incorrect as attitude and expectations may influence placebo effects but not directly impact drug action.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To determine when 25 mg of the drug will be eliminated, we first calculate the time it takes for half the initial dose to be eliminated, which is 8 hours. So, by 2:00 PM (8 hours after administration), 25 mg will be eliminated. This is because half of the initial 50 mg (25 mg) would have been metabolized by then. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A (8:00 AM) is incorrect because it is too early for 25 mg to be eliminated. Choice B (11:00 AM) is incorrect because it is only 5 hours after administration, not enough time for 25 mg to be eliminated. Choice D (6:00 PM) is incorrect because it is too late, as 25 mg would have been eliminated by 2:00 PM.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Caspofungin. This drug is appropriate for systemic antifungal treatment as it inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan in fungal cell walls. It is effective against a broad spectrum of fungal infections. Amphotericin B (A) is also a systemic antifungal but is associated with more severe side effects. Piperacillin (C) is an antibiotic not used for antifungal treatment. Metronidazole (D) is an antiprotozoal and antibiotic, not effective against systemic fungal infections.