ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is most effective as a topical agent for a candida infection of the skin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cutaneous candidiasis needs topical antifungals. Griseofulvin treats dermatophytes orally, not candida topically. Beclometasone, a steroid, worsens fungal growth. Aciclovir targets herpes, not fungi. Amphotericin is IV for systemic use. Nystatin binds ergosterol in candida membranes, most effective topically for skin infections, widely used for its specificity and safety.
Question 2 of 9
Beta-adrenergic blocking drugs are used in children for disorders similar to those in adults. What adrenergic blocking agent is used during surgery for pheochromocytoma?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phentolamine is used during surgery for pheochromocytoma in children. Prazosin is used to treat hypertension in children. Propranolol and guanethidine are not indicated for use in children with a pheochromocytoma. The nurse should understand the indications for phentolamine to ensure safe and effective administration.
Question 3 of 9
A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic aç€ç€acks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It belongs to a class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which work by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. This helps to reduce the excessive activity in the brain that can lead to anxiety and panic symptoms. Alprazolam is fast-acting and can provide relief from panic attacks quickly.
Question 4 of 9
What is the peak range of regular insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The peak range of regular insulin typically occurs between 1 to 5 hours after administration. This means that regular insulin will reach its maximum effectiveness in lowering blood sugar levels during this time frame. Patients should be aware of this peak range to help manage their diabetes effectively and time their meals and activities accordingly.
Question 5 of 9
A 56-year-old alcoholic man consumes a six-pack of beer before going to bed. After being absorbed from his gut, blood carries the alcohol through the portal vein into the liver where it can be metabolized. Ethanol is metabolized in multiple steps by various enzymes, including alcohol dehydrogenase. Which of the following describes a characteristic of this enzyme?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) metabolizes ethanol to acetaldehyde and is inhibited by fomepizole , used in poisonings. It doesn't act on acetaldehyde or acetate . Disulfiram blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase. ADH's role initiates ethanol breakdown.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following medications reduces immune system-mediated inflammation via inhibition of pyrimidine synthesis to reduce the number of activated lymphocytes in the CNS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Teriflunomide, used in multiple sclerosis, inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase, blocking pyrimidine synthesis critical for lymphocyte proliferation, reducing CNS inflammation by limiting activated immune cells. Riluzole modulates glutamate for ALS, not immunity. Rotigotine, a dopamine agonist, treats Parkinson's. Dexamethasone, a corticosteroid, suppresses inflammation broadly via glucocorticoid pathways, not pyrimidine-specific mechanisms. Teriflunomide's targeted action on lymphocyte replication distinguishes it in MS, decreasing relapses by curbing immune-mediated damage, a precise fit for this description.
Question 7 of 9
A liquid preparation of K penicillin V contains 125mg/5ml. If you want a patient to take 250mg. each dose, you would prescribe ___ per
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To prescribe 250mg of K penicillin V, you would need to have 10ml of the liquid preparation (125mg/5ml x 10ml = 250mg). Since 1 teaspoon (tsp) is approximately equal to 5ml, you would need to prescribe 2 teaspoons of the liquid preparation for the patient to take 250mg per dose.
Question 8 of 9
A 63-year-old woman with congestive heart failure begins to have lower extremity swelling. She starts taking a diuretic and the swelling improves significantly. Over the next few days, however, she develops ringing in her ears. Which of the following diuretics is she taking?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diuretics treat CHF edema, but tinnitus suggests a side effect. Furosemide , a loop diuretic, causes ototoxicity (ringing in ears) at high doses. Acetazolamide , a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, doesn't typically cause this. Hydrochlorothiazide , a thiazide, rarely affects hearing. Mannitol , an osmotic diuretic, and Spironolactone (E), an aldosterone antagonist, lack ototoxicity. Furosemide's rapid action on edema fits CHF, but its cochlear toxicity explains the symptom, common in loop diuretics.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and is to begin antitubercular therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol. Which actions are appropriate for the nurse to do? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis, so periodic eye examinations are essential. Taking medications with meals can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Antacids should be avoided as they can interfere with drug absorption. Numbness and tingling of the hands or feet may indicate peripheral neuropathy, a side effect of isoniazid, and should be reported promptly.