Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?

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microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory tract. The respiratory tract is likely the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment and has a large surface area lined with mucous membranes that can trap and facilitate the entry of pathogens. Additionally, the respiratory tract serves as a direct pathway for pathogens to reach the bloodstream and other organs. Skin (choice A) is a physical barrier that can prevent pathogen entry, while the gastrointestinal tract (choice B) has acidic pH and enzymes that can kill many pathogens. Conjunctiva (choice D) is a less common portal of entry compared to the respiratory tract due to its smaller surface area and protective mechanisms such as tears.

Question 2 of 9

Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Subcutaneous mycoses are fungal infections that affect the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and bones. The correct answer is A: tropics, as these infections are more commonly found in warm and humid regions. Fungi that cause subcutaneous mycoses thrive in tropical climates due to the favorable conditions for their growth and transmission. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because deserts (B) have dry conditions not conducive to fungal growth, forests of the Northern Hemisphere (C) have varying climates that may not support the specific fungi causing subcutaneous mycoses, and the Rocky Mountains (D) are not typically associated with the high humidity required for these infections.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with diarrhea had stool microscopy revealing large, oval protozoa with a single nucleus and four flagella. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Large, oval protozoa with a single nucleus and four flagella indicate Giardia lamblia. Step 2: Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan causing diarrhea. Step 3: It has a distinct appearance under microscopy. Step 4: Entamoeba histolytica causes dysentery with no flagella. Step 5: Balantidium coli is a ciliated protozoan with a larger size. Step 6: Trichomonas vaginalis lacks a cyst stage and causes genitourinary infections.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following proteins are encoded by herpesviruses and required for viral DNA replication

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: viral DNA polymerase. Herpesviruses require viral DNA polymerase for viral DNA replication. This enzyme is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands using existing viral DNA as a template. Ribonucleotide reductase (B) is not directly involved in DNA replication but in the synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides. Neuraminidase (C) is an enzyme found in influenza viruses, not herpesviruses. Thymidine kinase (D) is involved in nucleotide metabolism but is not essential for viral DNA replication in herpesviruses.

Question 5 of 9

On the 15-th day after a minor trauma of the right foot a patient felt malaise, fatigability, irritability, headache, high body temperature, feeling of compression, tension and muscular twitching of his right crus. What disease can it be?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tetanus. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which produces a toxin affecting the nervous system. Symptoms such as malaise, irritability, muscular twitching, and high body temperature are characteristic of tetanus due to muscle spasms and rigidity. The 15-day incubation period after trauma aligns with the typical onset of tetanus symptoms. Incorrect choices: B: Anaerobic gas gangrene - This condition usually presents with localized tissue necrosis and gas bubbles in the affected area, not systemic symptoms like malaise and headache. C: Erysipelas - This is a bacterial skin infection presenting with red, swollen patches, not the neurological symptoms seen in tetanus. D: Acute thrombophlebitis - This is a blood clot in a vein causing pain and swelling, not associated with the systemic symptoms and muscle twitching seen in tetanus.

Question 6 of 9

A 32-year-old patient undergoing dental examination was found to have some rash-like lesions resembling secondary syphilis in the oral cavity. The patient was referred for the serological study with the purpose of diagnosis confirmation. In order to detect antibodies in the serum, living Treponema were used as diagnosticum. What serological test was performed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Passive hemagglutination. In this test, red blood cells coated with Treponema antigens agglutinate in the presence of patient's serum antibodies. This indicates the presence of antibodies against Treponema, confirming the diagnosis. A: Immobilization test uses live Treponema to detect specific antibodies, but it is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. C: Precipitation test is not commonly used for syphilis diagnosis. D: Complement binding test is not specific for syphilis and is used more for autoimmune diseases. Therefore, passive hemagglutination is the most appropriate serological test in this case due to its specificity and relevance to the presentation of the patient.

Question 7 of 9

The optochin sensitivity test demonstrates:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The optochin sensitivity test is used to differentiate Pneumococcal (Streptococcus pneumoniae) from other streptococci. Optochin sensitivity is a characteristic feature of Pneumococcal, as it inhibits its growth. The test involves placing optochin discs on a culture plate and observing the zone of inhibition around the disc for Pneumococcal. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Staphylococci, and Group A streptococci do not exhibit optochin sensitivity, making them incorrect choices. In summary, the optochin sensitivity test is specific to Pneumococcal, making choice B the correct answer.

Question 8 of 9

The most common bacterial nonsexually transmitted infection of the male reproductive system is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: prostatitis. Prostatitis is the most common bacterial infection affecting the male reproductive system. It is characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland due to bacterial infection. Symptoms include pain in the pelvic area, difficulty urinating, and fever. Cystitis (A) is a bladder infection, not specific to the male reproductive system. Mastitis (C) is inflammation of the breast tissue, which is not related to the male reproductive system. Nephritis (D) is inflammation of the kidneys, which is also not specific to the male reproductive system.

Question 9 of 9

A child with fever and swollen lymph nodes had a Gram-stained smear revealing Gram-negative rods with a safety pin appearance. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. This bacterium causes the plague, which presents with fever and swollen lymph nodes. The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of Yersinia pestis. B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, which presents differently and does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the question. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain and does not typically present with fever and swollen lymph nodes.

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