ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is information the nurse would be correct in giving the patient about smoking and its effect on BP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is associated with stages 1 and 2 hypertension. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing hypertension, especially stages 1 and 2. Nicotine in cigarettes can lead to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and overall elevated blood pressure. This information is crucial for patients to understand the direct impact of smoking on their blood pressure levels. Choice B is incorrect because smoking does indeed affect BP regulation by causing vasoconstriction and elevated heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as smoking actually causes vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation. Choice D is incorrect because smoking does lead to sustained elevation of blood pressure, especially in the long term.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketonic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: In HHNS, there is severe hyperglycemia leading to osmotic diuresis. Step 2: Osmotic diuresis causes loss of potassium in urine, leading to hypokalemia. Step 3: Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in HHNS due to excessive urinary loss of potassium. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a below-normal serum potassium level in a client with HHNS. Summary: A: Elevated serum acetone level is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS. B: Serum alkalosis is not typically associated with HHNS. C: Serum ketone bodies are elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNS.
Question 3 of 9
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
Question 4 of 9
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.
Question 5 of 9
A young male client visits a nurse with a complaint of chronic tension headaches. Which of the ff is the most appropriate nursing instruction to manage the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Counselling on alternate therapies. Chronic tension headaches may be exacerbated by stress or other psychological factors, making counseling an appropriate intervention. The nurse can explore relaxation techniques, stress management strategies, or cognitive-behavioral therapy to help the client manage their headaches. A: Instructing the client to monitor for signs of bruising or bleeding is unrelated to tension headaches and not a priority in this situation. B: Suggesting eating and swallowing techniques that reduce the potential for aspiration is not relevant to tension headaches and is not the most appropriate intervention. D: Advising the client to change sleeping positions frequently may help with other types of headaches but is not the most effective strategy for managing chronic tension headaches.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is most important discharge teaching for Mr. Dela Isla
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drug Compliance. After a CVA (stroke), it is crucial for Mr. Dela Isla to understand and adhere to his prescribed medications. Medications help prevent further strokes and manage underlying conditions. Drug compliance ensures optimal treatment outcomes. Emergency Numbers (A) are important but not the priority post-stroke. Relaxation techniques (B) may be helpful but not as critical as medication adherence. Dietary prescription (D) is important but not as urgent as drug compliance in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
An oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which one is accurate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Men can develop breast cancer. This is accurate because although breast cancer is more common in women, men can also develop the disease due to the presence of breast tissue in their bodies. This is a crucial point to emphasize to raise awareness about breast cancer among men. Incorrect choices: A: Mammography is not the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer, as it may not detect all types of breast cancer. B: Breast cancer is not the leading killer of women of childbearing age, as there are other leading causes of death in this age group. C: Breast cancer does not always require a mastectomy; treatment options vary depending on the individual case. Summary: Choice D is correct as it highlights the important fact that men can also develop breast cancer, which is often overlooked. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect due to inaccuracies or oversimplifications of the facts related to breast cancer detection, statistics, and treatment.
Question 8 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home. A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes. C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement. D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.