ATI RN
Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is information the nurse would be correct in giving the patient about smoking and its effect on BP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is associated with stages 1 and 2 hypertension. Smoking is a major risk factor for developing hypertension, especially stages 1 and 2. Nicotine in cigarettes can lead to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and overall elevated blood pressure. This information is crucial for patients to understand the direct impact of smoking on their blood pressure levels. Choice B is incorrect because smoking does indeed affect BP regulation by causing vasoconstriction and elevated heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as smoking actually causes vasoconstriction rather than vasodilation. Choice D is incorrect because smoking does lead to sustained elevation of blood pressure, especially in the long term.
Question 2 of 9
An adult has a central line in his right subclavian vein. The nurse is to change the tubing. Which of the following should be done?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Close the roller clamp on the new tubing after priming it. This step ensures that the tubing is primed with the solution and ready for use while preventing air from entering the central line. Option A is incorrect because using the present solution may introduce contamination. Option B is incorrect as connecting tubing before running fluid can introduce air into the line. Option D is incorrect as positioning the client on the right side does not prevent air embolism during tubing change.
Question 3 of 9
A patient reports on admission being “very sick” after taking erythromycin in the past. The patient is to receive erythromycin now. Which of the following actions should the nurse take regarding giving the antibiotic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not give the antibiotic. This is because the patient has a history of being "very sick" after taking erythromycin in the past, indicating a potential allergic reaction or severe adverse effects. The nurse should not administer the antibiotic to prevent harm to the patient. Choice A is incorrect as it can lead to a repeat adverse reaction. Choice C, giving half the dose, still exposes the patient to potential harm. Choice D, discontinuing the antibiotic, is also incorrect as it implies the patient has already started the medication, which should not be the case given the history of adverse effects.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is getting ready to discharge a patient who has a problem with physical mobility. What does the nurse need to do before discontinuing the patient’s plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because before discontinuing a patient's plan of care related to physical mobility, the nurse needs to evaluate whether the patient goals and outcomes have been met. This step ensures that the patient has achieved the desired level of physical mobility improvement and is ready to safely continue their care at home. A: Determining whether the patient has transportation to get home is important but not directly related to the patient's physical mobility goals and outcomes. C: Establishing a follow-up appointment is important but does not directly address the evaluation of the patient's physical mobility improvement. D: Ensuring that the patient's prescriptions are filled is crucial for medication management but does not specifically evaluate the patient's physical mobility progress.
Question 5 of 9
A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.
Question 6 of 9
A client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6 weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the Western blot test with ELISA. First, ELISA is used as a screening test for HIV antibodies. If positive, a confirmatory test like Western blot is needed to detect specific antibodies. Western blot is highly specific and confirms the presence of HIV antibodies. E-rosette immunofluorescence is not typically used for HIV diagnosis. Quantification of T-lymphocytes is used to monitor disease progression in HIV but does not confirm HIV infection. ELISA alone is not confirmatory; it needs to be followed by a more specific test like Western blot.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is being discharged on furosemide (Lasix). The nurse evaluates the patient as understanding her medication teaching if she states that she will have which of the ff. laboratory tests monitored as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will have my potassium level checked." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. A: Monitoring urine sodium is not typically necessary for furosemide therapy. B: Prothrombin time monitoring is unrelated to furosemide therapy. C: Monitoring calcium levels is not directly affected by furosemide use. In summary, monitoring potassium levels is essential due to the potential for hypokalemia with furosemide, while the other options are not directly relevant to this medication.
Question 8 of 9
A female client recovers from a serious case of insect bites. What skin related advice must the nurse give to the client and all her family members to prevent the recurrence of the ailment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Apply insect repellent to clothing and exposed skin. This advice helps prevent insect bites, reducing the risk of recurrence. Insect repellent creates a barrier against insects, hence minimizing the chances of getting bitten. Other choices are incorrect as they do not directly address the prevention of insect bites. Choice A is vague and does not provide a specific preventive measure. Choice C is incorrect as thick woollen clothing may not necessarily prevent insect bites. Choice D, sunscreen lotion, protects against UV rays, not insect bites.
Question 9 of 9
During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the client has breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin is a classic sign of breast cancer. This finding is concerning as it indicates an abnormal growth that has invaded surrounding tissues. Dimpling occurs due to fibrotic changes pulling on the skin. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A slight asymmetry of the breasts is common and not necessarily indicative of cancer. Bloody discharge from the nipple can be a sign of other conditions like intraductal papilloma. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle are likely benign fibrocystic changes.