Which of the following is INCORRECT about cilostazol?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) It stimulates phosphodiesterase enzyme → ↑ cAMP breakdown. Cilostazol is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, which leads to an increase in cAMP levels, resulting in vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation. Option A is correct as cilostazol is indeed an oral vasodilator and antiplatelet drug used in peripheral vascular diseases. Option C is correct as cilostazol is indicated for the treatment of intermittent claudication. Option D is incorrect as one of the most common adverse effects of cilostazol is not headache but rather diarrhea, palpitations, and abnormal stools. Educational context: Understanding the mechanism of action of cilostazol is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the management of patients with peripheral vascular diseases. Knowing the correct indications and adverse effects of cilostazol ensures safe and effective medication use. This question highlights the importance of precise pharmacological knowledge in the administration of chemotherapy drugs to optimize patient outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the treatment of hypercalcemia, the drug that is NOT used is Teriparatide (Option C). Teriparatide is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by stimulating bone formation, but it is not indicated for the management of hypercalcemia. Calcitonin (Option A) is used in hypercalcemia because it inhibits bone resorption and promotes renal excretion of calcium, helping to lower blood calcium levels. Glucocorticoids (Option B) are also used in hypercalcemia as they can inhibit calcium absorption in the intestines and promote calcium excretion by the kidneys. Alendronate (Option D) is a bisphosphonate drug used in conditions of high bone turnover, such as osteoporosis, but it is not typically used in hypercalcemia treatment. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to have a solid understanding of the mechanisms of action of different drugs used in the management of various conditions. Understanding which drugs are appropriate for specific situations, like hypercalcemia, ensures safe and effective patient care. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions when selecting the most appropriate treatment options based on the underlying pathophysiology of the condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct statement concerning bromocriptine is option A) Orally active DA agonist. Bromocriptine is indeed an orally active dopamine (DA) agonist. Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to treat various conditions including Parkinson's disease and hyperprolactinemia. Option B) is incorrect as bromocriptine actually decreases prolactin levels and is used to treat hyperprolactinemia. Option C) is also incorrect as breast engorgement is not a major side effect of bromocriptine. Option D) is incorrect as bromocriptine actually stimulates growth hormone secretion in normal persons. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological actions of bromocriptine is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially those working in oncology or endocrinology. Knowing that bromocriptine is an orally active dopamine agonist helps in making informed decisions about its use in clinical practice. It also highlights the importance of accurate drug knowledge to ensure safe and effective patient care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In-vitro fertilization (IVF) is a complex process involving hormonal manipulation to stimulate egg production. Option B is correct because exogenous FSH is indeed administered to induce follicular maturation at a specific time, helping to control the timing of ovulation and improve the chances of successful fertilization. Option A is incorrect because Gonadorelin, a synthetic Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone, is used to stimulate rather than inhibit FSH release. Option C is also incorrect as Nafarelin is a GnRH agonist used to downregulate the pituitary gland before ovarian stimulation, not an FSH analog. Educational context: Understanding the specific hormones and their roles in IVF is crucial for healthcare professionals working in reproductive medicine. Correct administration of these drugs can significantly impact the success rates of IVF procedures. Knowing the functions of each medication helps in providing appropriate patient care and optimizing outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Prophylactic tamoxifen in women at high risk of breast cancer results in the blockade of estrogen receptors in breast tissue (Option A) because tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that competes with estrogen for binding to the estrogen receptors in breast tissue. By blocking these receptors, tamoxifen helps reduce the stimulatory effects of estrogen on breast tissue, thereby lowering the risk of developing breast cancer. Option B is incorrect because tamoxifen primarily acts on estrogen receptors in breast tissue, not in the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is involved in regulating hormonal signaling but is not the target of tamoxifen therapy. Option C is incorrect because tamoxifen is actually associated with a decreased risk of osteoporosis due to its estrogen-like effects on bone density. Estrogen is known to have a protective effect on bone health, and tamoxifen, by partially mimicking estrogen's actions, can help maintain bone density in postmenopausal women. Option D is incorrect because tamoxifen use is associated with an increased risk of endometrial carcinoma, not a decreased incidence. This is due to the estrogenic effects of tamoxifen on the endometrium, which can lead to hyperplasia and an increased risk of developing endometrial cancer. In an educational context, understanding the mechanism of action and potential side effects of chemotherapy drugs like tamoxifen is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in cancer care. This knowledge helps in making informed decisions regarding treatment options and managing potential side effects effectively, ultimately improving patient outcomes.