Which of the following is highly associated with preterm babies?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Multiple gestation. Preterm birth is more common in multiple gestation pregnancies due to the increased strain on the mother's uterus and cervix. This can lead to early labor and delivery. Social habits (choice A) and genetic factors (choice B) may play a role in preterm birth but are not highly associated. Chronic conditions (choice D) can also contribute to preterm birth, but multiple gestation is a stronger predictor.

Correct Answer: T

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Puerperal psychosis is a severe mental health condition occurring postpartum. 2. Psychosocial adversities, such as stress or lack of social support, can trigger or exacerbate mental health issues. 3. Therefore, psychosocial adversities can be predisposing factors for puerperal psychosis. 4. Option A (TRUE) is correct as it aligns with the established relationship between psychosocial factors and mental health. Summary: Option A is correct because psychosocial adversities can indeed contribute to the development of puerperal psychosis, making it a relevant predisposing factor. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not provide any rationale or evidence to support their validity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Atony of the uterus is the most common cause of primary postpartum hemorrhage due to inadequate uterine contractions. Step 2: Trauma of the genital tract can lead to bleeding but is not as common as atony of the uterus in postpartum hemorrhage. Step 3: Blood coagulation disorder can contribute to excessive bleeding but is not the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Step 4: Prolonged 3rd stage can result in postpartum hemorrhage but is typically secondary to uterine atony.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 3000 ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed when the amniotic fluid volume exceeds 2000 to 3000 ml. This is because amniotic fluid serves important functions in protecting the fetus and aiding in fetal movements. Having an excessively high volume can lead to complications such as preterm labor, fetal malpresentation, and placental abruption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not fall within the range typically used to diagnose polyhydramnios. A: 1500 ml and C: 1900 ml are below the threshold, while B: 2500 ml is at the lower end but still not exceeding the diagnostic range for polyhydramnios.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Six hours postnatally. Cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum. It typically appears several hours after birth due to trauma during delivery, causing bleeding under the periosteum. This allows time for the blood to accumulate and form a distinct swelling, making the onset around six hours postnatally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical timeline for the development of cephalohematoma.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4 hours. This is based on the definition of prolonged second stage in nulliparous women, which is labor lasting more than 4 hours. This duration is considered abnormal and may lead to increased risk of maternal and fetal complications. Choice A (1 hour) is too short and does not meet the criteria for prolonged second stage. Choice B (2 hours) is also insufficient based on the established timeframe. Choice D (8 hours) exceeds the duration for prolonged second stage, indicating a more advanced stage of labor. Therefore, the most appropriate and accurate timeframe for prolonged second stage in nulliparous women is 4 hours.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and sometimes mild edema. This indicates that the mother does have complaints, albeit they may be mild. The other choices (A, C, D) are incorrect because in mild preeclampsia, the mother does have complaints, so option A is not true. Options C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In True cephalopelvic disproportion, the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis. This condition often requires operative delivery (C-section) as a vaginal birth is not possible. Choice D is correct because operative delivery is indeed needed to safely deliver the baby. Choice A is incorrect as not all patients with cephalopelvic disproportion will necessarily require operative delivery. Choice B is also incorrect as the issue cannot generally be overcome during labor due to physical constraints. Choice C is incorrect as operative delivery is usually necessary in cases of true cephalopelvic disproportion to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In mild preeclampsia, the mother may have symptoms such as mild hypertension, proteinuria, and swelling. This contradicts the statement that the mother has no complaints. Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately states that the mother has no complaints. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any relevant information to address the question.