Which of the following is correct regarding the use of isotretinoin in the treatment of acne?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because isotretinoin is known to be highly teratogenic and can cause severe birth defects when taken during pregnancy. This is why it is contraindicated in pregnant women and effective contraception is required before, during, and after treatment. Intravenous administration of isotretinoin is not necessary for the treatment of acne and is typically administered orally. Choice A is incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Creatinine clearance. Creatinine clearance is the most accurate indicator of renal function as it directly measures the glomerular filtration rate. Monitoring creatinine clearance helps assess the kidney's ability to filter waste products. Serum creatinine levels (A) can be influenced by factors other than renal function. Serum albumin levels (B) reflect protein status, not renal function. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (D) can be affected by factors other than renal function, such as protein intake and liver function. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the best option for monitoring renal excretion in older patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: African American. This population benefits the most from diuretic therapy due to their higher prevalence of hypertension, as diuretics are particularly effective in managing hypertension in African Americans. This is supported by research showing better response rates to diuretics in this group compared to other antihypertensive medications. A: Those with orthostatic hypertension - Diuretics are not typically the first-line treatment for orthostatic hypertension, as other medications like midodrine are more effective. B: Diabetics - While diuretics can be used in diabetics with hypertension, they are not specifically the population that benefits the most from diuretic therapy. C: Those with stable angina - Diuretics are not indicated for the treatment of stable angina, as they do not address the underlying cause of the condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genital infections. Fluoroquinolone antibiotics are commonly used to treat bacterial infections in the genital area due to their broad spectrum of activity against various types of bacteria commonly implicated in these infections. They are effective against pathogens such as Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, and other sexually transmitted infections. A: Asthma - Fluoroquinolones are not indicated for the treatment of asthma as they are not effective against the underlying causes of asthma such as inflammation and bronchoconstriction. B: Follicular conjunctivitis - While fluoroquinolones can be used topically in the eye for certain eye infections, they are not typically indicated for follicular conjunctivitis which often requires different types of antibiotics. C: GERD - Fluoroquinolones are not used to treat GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease) which is a condition related to stomach acid reflux into the esophagus. Antacids

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Parental Ceftriaxone. Ceftriaxone is recommended for treating gonorrhea due to increasing resistance to other antibiotics. It provides broad-spectrum coverage and high efficacy. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Cephalexin is not the first-line treatment for gonorrhea. C: Ciprofloxacin is no longer recommended due to high resistance rates. D: Penicillin is not effective against gonorrhea due to widespread resistance.