Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.

Question 2 of 9

Which bacteria are responsible for causing the plague?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pestis is the bacterium responsible for causing the plague, specifically the bubonic plague. It is transmitted through fleas and rodents. Escherichia coli (A) is a common gut bacterium, Clostridium difficile (C) causes antibiotic-associated diarrhea, and Staphylococcus aureus (D) is associated with skin infections, but they are not responsible for causing the plague.

Question 3 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-negative diplococci. The organism was oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococci that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice A) is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae (choice C) is not a diplococci and Moraxella catarrhalis (choice D) is oxidase-negative. Thus, Neisseria meningitidis fits all the criteria provided in the question, making it the most likely causative agent for the sepsis in this patient.

Question 4 of 9

Patients after splenectomy are of high risk of infections caused by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: After a splenectomy, patients are at high risk of infections caused by encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, and Salmonella. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune response against encapsulated bacteria, and its absence increases susceptibility to these specific pathogens. Therefore, all choices are correct as patients are at risk of infections from all three types of bacteria mentioned.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria are capable of producing endospores?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium botulinum. This bacterium belongs to the Clostridium genus, known for its ability to produce endospores. Endospores are dormant, resistant structures that help bacteria survive harsh conditions. Staphylococcus aureus (A), Escherichia coli (C), and Neisseria gonorrhoeae (D) do not produce endospores. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive bacterium known for causing various infections, but it does not form endospores. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals, but it does not produce endospores. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative bacterium that causes the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, but it also does not form endospores.

Question 6 of 9

Immunity after single vaccination against tetanus - application of tetanus toxoid is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immunity after a single tetanus vaccination is of limited duration, usually around 10 years. Booster vaccinations are needed to maintain protection due to waning immunity over time. Choice A is incorrect as immunity is not usually lifelong. Choice C is incorrect as tetanus toxoid is a sterile vaccine and does not cause infection. Choice D is also incorrect as there is a correct answer, which is B.

Question 7 of 9

The time response measures all of the following except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Question 8 of 9

The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made of polypeptide. This is because the capsule is composed of a protein-based material that surrounds the bacterium, providing protection and aiding in its virulence. Polysaccharides, lipids, and the absence of capsules are not characteristic of Bacillus anthracis' capsule structure, making choices A, C, and D incorrect, respectively.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that infects the small intestine, leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of cholera. A: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. C: Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not cholera. D: Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not cholera.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days