Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?

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microbiology basic and clinical principles test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which of the following is commonly referred to as a pinworm?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: protozoans. Pinworms are commonly referred to as Enterobius vermicularis, which are parasitic worms belonging to the phylum Nematoda. Protozoans are single-celled organisms, and pinworms are multicellular worms. Algae are photosynthetic organisms, helminths are parasitic worms (which pinworms fall under), and fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include molds and yeasts. Therefore, protozoans are the correct choice for organisms commonly referred to as pinworms.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is known for causing the disease tetanus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani. This bacterium is known for causing tetanus due to its ability to produce tetanospasmin, a neurotoxin that leads to the characteristic muscle stiffness and spasms seen in tetanus. Clostridium perfringens (Choice B) is associated with gas gangrene, Streptococcus pyogenes (Choice C) causes streptococcal infections, and Escherichia coli (Choice D) is known for causing various gastrointestinal infections. Therefore, Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not the causative agents of tetanus.

Question 3 of 9

A patient suffers from severe postoperative pseudomonadous infection. What of the following antibiotics should be administered in this case?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amikacin sulfate. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly resistant to many antibiotics, but aminoglycosides like Amikacin have good activity against it. Step 1: Identify the pathogen causing the infection. Step 2: Consider the antibiotic's spectrum of activity against the pathogen. Step 3: Choose an antibiotic with proven efficacy. Amikacin is a good choice due to its effectiveness against Pseudomonas. Choice B, Benzylpenicillin, is a penicillin which is not effective against Pseudomonas. Choice C, Cephazolin, is a cephalosporin with limited activity against Pseudomonas. Choice D, Erythromycin, is a macrolide which is not effective against Pseudomonas.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing cholera?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a bacterium that infects the small intestine, leading to severe diarrhea and dehydration. This bacterium produces a toxin that causes the symptoms of cholera. A: Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. C: Salmonella enterica causes food poisoning, not cholera. D: Escherichia coli can cause food poisoning but not cholera.

Question 5 of 9

Formic acid is a fermentation product of

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Formic acid is produced during fermentation by Actinomyces. Step 2: Actinomyces are known to produce organic acids like formic acid through fermentation. Step 3: Other choices like Streptococcus, Klebsiella, and Clostridium are not typically associated with formic acid production. Step 4: Actinomyces is the most likely candidate based on its fermentation capabilities. Summary: Actinomyces is the correct answer because it is known to produce formic acid during fermentation, while the other choices lack this specific metabolic function.

Question 6 of 9

Growth of bacteria is a result of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The growth of bacteria is a result of water adsorption because water is essential for various metabolic processes within the bacterial cells, such as nutrient uptake, energy production, and waste removal. Water serves as a medium for chemical reactions to occur and provides structural support to the bacteria. Without sufficient water, bacteria cannot thrive and reproduce. A: Air consumption is incorrect because while bacteria may require oxygen for respiration, it is not the primary factor for their growth. C: Enzyme production is incorrect because enzymes are important for various cellular functions but do not directly influence bacterial growth. D: Radio isotopes are incorrect as they are not essential for bacterial growth and can even be harmful to bacterial cells.

Question 7 of 9

A 25-year-old patient reports pain, burning at urination and scarce secretion in the morning. Urine samples are taken and cultivated on blood and MacConkey agar. After 24 hours of incubation, the culture are sterile. Which one of the following bacteria is the most probable cause of this disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia trachomatis. This is because Chlamydia trachomatis is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot be cultured on standard agar plates. The symptoms described by the patient, such as pain, burning at urination, and scarce secretion in the morning, are indicative of a possible chlamydial infection. Additionally, the fact that the urine cultures are sterile after 24 hours of incubation suggests that the causative agent is not a typical bacteria like Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which would normally grow on agar plates. Therefore, Chlamydia trachomatis is the most probable cause of this disease. Summary: A: Escherichia coli - Incorrect, as it is a common cause of urinary tract infections and would typically grow on agar plates. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae - Incorrect, as it is

Question 8 of 9

The time response measures all of the following except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ED50. The time response does not measure the ED50 because ED50 refers to the effective dose needed to produce a response in 50% of the population, which is a dose-related concept, not a time-related one. Peak effect time, onset of response, and threshold level are all time-related measures in pharmacology. Peak effect time is the time taken to reach the maximum response, onset of response is the time taken for the response to start, and threshold level is the minimum dose or concentration required to produce a response. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it is the only choice that is not a time-related measure in this context.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following viruses belongs to family Arenaviridae?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lassa virus. The rationale is as follows: 1. Lassa virus belongs to the family Arenaviridae, known for causing Lassa fever. 2. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. 3. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever virus belongs to the Nairoviridae family. 4. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to the Herpesviridae family. In summary, Lassa virus is the correct answer because it is the only virus listed that belongs to the Arenaviridae family.

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