ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is associated with brain edema if improperly treated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the effects of electrolyte imbalances is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, or low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to brain edema if improperly treated. When sodium levels are low, water can move into brain cells, causing them to swell. In pediatric patients, this can be particularly dangerous as their developing brains are more susceptible to damage from such edema. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Hypernatremia (high sodium levels) typically does not lead to brain edema but rather dehydration and neurological symptoms. C) Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is associated with muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, not brain edema. D) Hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) can cause cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness but is not directly linked to brain edema. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing the implications of electrolyte imbalances, especially in pediatric patients. Nurses must be vigilant in monitoring and treating electrolyte imbalances promptly to prevent serious complications like brain edema. Understanding these concepts is essential for providing high-quality care to pediatric patients.
Question 2 of 5
Clinical examination of a child with large unilateral pneumothorax can show:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a child with a large unilateral pneumothorax, the clinical examination can show decreased breath sound intensity, making option A the correct answer. This occurs because air accumulation in the pleural space hinders normal lung sounds from reaching the chest wall. Option B, increased tactile vocal fremitus, is incorrect because tactile fremitus typically decreases or remains unchanged in a pneumothorax due to the presence of air rather than fluid or solid material in the pleural space. Option C, crepitations, are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia or pulmonary edema, not pneumothorax. Option D, bronchial breathing, is characterized by harsh, tubular breath sounds heard over a consolidated lung area, which is not typically present in a pneumothorax unless there are other underlying conditions. Educationally, understanding the clinical manifestations of pneumothorax in children is crucial for pediatric nursing practice. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax, such as decreased breath sounds, enables early detection and timely interventions to prevent respiratory compromise and other potential complications.
Question 3 of 5
Iron chelating agents are used for treatment of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iron chelating agents are used for the treatment of chronic hemolytic anemia because this condition is characterized by increased breakdown of red blood cells, leading to the release of excess iron into the bloodstream. Iron chelators bind to this excess iron and help remove it from the body, preventing iron overload and associated complications. Option A, leukemia, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not typically used in the treatment of leukemia. Leukemia is a cancer of the blood and bone marrow, and its treatment involves chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and sometimes stem cell transplants. Option B, lymphoma, is also incorrect as iron chelators are not a standard part of lymphoma treatment. Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system, and treatment typically involves chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiation therapy, or a combination of these. Option C, Wilms tumor, is incorrect because iron chelating agents are not indicated for the treatment of this specific type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. Treatment for Wilms tumor usually involves surgery, chemotherapy, and sometimes radiation therapy. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate use of iron chelating agents in chronic hemolytic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. This knowledge helps nurses provide safe and effective care, monitor for potential side effects of iron chelators, and educate patients and families on the importance of treatment compliance.
Question 4 of 5
Which clinical sign is pathognomonic of rubella?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Post auricular lymphadenopathy. Rubella, also known as German measles, is characterized by the presence of post auricular lymphadenopathy, which refers to swollen lymph nodes located behind the ears. This clinical sign is pathognomonic, meaning it is highly characteristic and specific to rubella. Option A) Severe prodromal stage is not pathognomonic of rubella. While rubella does have a prodromal stage, the severity of this stage is not unique to rubella and can be seen in other conditions as well. Option B) Circumoral pallor is not specific to rubella. This finding refers to a paleness around the mouth and is not a key clinical sign of rubella. Option C) Maculopapular rash is a common manifestation of rubella but is not pathognomonic. This type of rash can be seen in various viral infections and is not unique to rubella. Educationally, understanding the key clinical signs and symptoms of pediatric diseases like rubella is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing pathognomonic signs can lead to early identification and appropriate management of the condition, ultimately improving patient outcomes. Nurses should be well-versed in differentiating between common and unique clinical manifestations to provide optimal care to their pediatric patients.
Question 5 of 5
Acyclovir is indicated for treatment of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acyclovir is indicated for the treatment of herpes simplex virus infections. This antiviral medication specifically targets and inhibits the replication of herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2. Herpes simplex virus infections commonly manifest as oral or genital lesions and acyclovir is effective in reducing the severity and duration of these symptoms. Option B) Enteroviruses: Acyclovir is not effective against enteroviruses as it specifically targets herpes simplex viruses. Enteroviruses can cause a variety of illnesses such as hand, foot, and mouth disease, meningitis, and myocarditis. Option C) Mumps: Acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of mumps. Mumps is caused by a different virus and does not respond to acyclovir treatment. Option D) Measles: Acyclovir is not used to treat measles. Measles is caused by a different virus and requires a different treatment approach. Understanding the indications for specific medications is crucial in pediatric nursing practice to ensure safe and effective patient care. Knowing the appropriate use of medications like acyclovir can help pediatric nurses provide optimal treatment for their young patients with herpes simplex virus infections.