ATI RN
Introduction to Pharmacology ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is/are true for phenolic germicidal agents:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenolic germicidal agents are commonly used as disinfectants due to their ability to kill microorganisms. Hexachlorophene is one type of phenolic germicidal agent that has been used as a surgical scrub in the past. It has antiseptic properties and can effectively reduce the number of bacteria on the skin, making it suitable for use in sterile environments such as surgical procedures. While phenolic germicidal agents do possess antibacterial properties, they do not typically have topical anesthetic effects like some other types of disinfectants. Additionally, while phenolic agents are used in various dental procedures, they are not specifically used in root canal therapy. The examples provided in the last statement, formocresol, cresantin, and eugenol, are not phenolic germicidal agents but rather dental materials used for different purposes.
Question 2 of 5
The following agents induce hepatic CYP450:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampicin is a potent inducer of CYP450 enzymes, increasing the metabolism of drugs processed via these pathways.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate therapy for the control of preeclampsia. A nurse discovers that the client is encountering toxicity from the medication in which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity can cause respiratory depression, which is indicated by a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute or less. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention. Deep tendon reflexes are typically absent in severe toxicity, not present. A urine output of 25 ml/hr may indicate renal impairment but is not specific to magnesium toxicity. A serum magnesium level of 7 mEq/L is elevated but does not alone confirm toxicity without clinical symptoms. Therefore, respiratory depression is the key indicator.
Question 4 of 5
A 20-year-old woman who is 15 weeks pregnant is admitted feverish and dehydrated with acute severe asthma associated with a community-acquired pneumonia. She has a history of angioedema following a cephalosporin. Which of the following is not appropriate therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute asthma and pneumonia in pregnancy require urgent care. IV crystalloids rehydrate, safe and necessary. High FiO2 (40%) supports oxygenation in asthma/pneumonia, appropriate. Nebulized salbutamol, a beta-agonist, relieves bronchospasm, standard and safe. IV hydrocortisone reduces inflammation, suitable. IV gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, treats pneumonia but is inappropriate due to cephalosporin cross-reactivity risk (angioedema history) and fetal ototoxicity concerns, making it unsafe here. Alternative antibiotics (e.g., macrolides) are preferred, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety.
Question 5 of 5
A 48-year-old man with a known history of asthma takes daily theophylline. He is found unconscious in his bathroom with an open bottle of theophylline that is now empty nearby. He is found by EMS to be apneic and pulseless. What is the most likely cause of death in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline overdose (empty bottle) causes cardiac arrhythmias . Toxicity leads to tachyarrhythmias, often fatal. Apnea is secondary. Pulmonary embolism lacks context. Seizures occur but aren't primary. Tetany (E) is unrelated. Arrhythmias align with theophylline's narrow therapeutic index.