Which of the following is (are) true about atypical antipsychotics? (Select one that does not apply.)

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Psychobiological Disorder Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is (are) true about atypical antipsychotics? (Select one that does not apply.)

Correct Answer: b

Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics are a class of medications used to manage psychobiological disorders like schizophrenia. The correct answer, "B) Strong dopamine receptor antagonists," is not true about atypical antipsychotics. Atypical antipsychotics are actually considered weak dopamine receptor antagonists, which is why they are classified as "atypical" compared to typical antipsychotics. Option A, "Weak dopamine receptor antagonists," is correct because atypical antipsychotics have a lower affinity for dopamine receptors compared to typical antipsychotics. This property contributes to their reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms, as mentioned in option C. Extrapyramidal symptoms are movement disorders commonly associated with dopamine blockade in the brain. Option D, "Used to treat negative and positive symptoms of schizophrenia," is also correct. Atypical antipsychotics are effective in managing both positive symptoms (such as hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (such as social withdrawal and lack of motivation) of schizophrenia. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological properties of atypical antipsychotics is crucial for healthcare providers working with individuals with psychobiological disorders. Knowing that atypical antipsychotics are weak dopamine receptor antagonists helps in selecting appropriate medications based on a patient's symptoms and potential side effects. It also underscores the importance of individualized treatment approaches in psychiatry.

Question 2 of 5

Team members working with patients who have dementia need to have a common, unified approach because this type of patient requires:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Consistency is important when short-term memory is limited. The patient can count on that approach even when he or she can't remember details. Strict rules and behavior modification aren't useful when the short-term memory is impaired. These patients are not using manipulation, again, due to poor memory.

Question 3 of 5

A person who is receiving tests to confirm a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is preparing for a computerized tomography (CT) test. The patient becomes restless and is unable to follow the pre-examination directions given by the personnel. As the nurse who is assisting the patient, your best action at this time is to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take the patient to a quiet waiting area until it is time for the CT scan (Option C). This option is the best course of action as it addresses the immediate need of calming the patient in a non-confrontational manner. Option A is incorrect because threatening the patient with having to return another day may escalate the situation and further agitate the patient. This approach lacks empathy and understanding of the patient's needs during a stressful time. Option B is not the best choice as providing written instructions may not effectively address the patient's current state of restlessness and inability to follow verbal directions. Written instructions may be helpful for some patients but not in this immediate situation. Option D is not appropriate as forcefully strapping the patient to the examination table can be seen as a violation of the patient's autonomy and dignity. It can also exacerbate the patient's agitation and resistance. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to approach patients with empathy, patience, and understanding, especially when dealing with individuals who may be experiencing cognitive or behavioral challenges. Taking the patient to a quiet area allows for de-escalation of the situation and creates a more conducive environment for cooperation. It is essential to prioritize the well-being and comfort of the patient while providing care.

Question 4 of 5

Henry Smith is 88 years old and has been having periods of disorientation and confusion that worsen at night. He has been given a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease. When you pick up Henry's tray after supper, you observe that he has not touched any of the food. As his nurse, you understand that the most likely cause of his not eating is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) He is too forgetful to remember to eat. In Alzheimer's disease, individuals often experience cognitive decline, including memory deficits. This can lead to forgetfulness about performing basic activities like eating. Henry's disorientation and confusion, characteristic of Alzheimer's, can significantly impact his ability to remember to eat, especially as his symptoms worsen at night. Option A) He is too depressed to eat is incorrect because although depression can affect appetite, the scenario provided does not indicate any specific signs of depression in Henry. Option B) He sees ants in his food is incorrect as it introduces a new element (hallucination of ants) not mentioned in the scenario. While hallucinations can occur in some cases of Alzheimer's, there is no evidence in the scenario to support this option. Option D) He is deliberately obstinate is incorrect because it implies a deliberate refusal to eat, which is not typically seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. It is important to understand the behavioral and cognitive symptoms associated with psychobiological disorders like Alzheimer's to provide appropriate care and support for patients like Henry.

Question 5 of 5

Aricept is a medication used to treat which condition(s)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of psychobiological disorders, Aricept is a medication primarily used to treat dementia. Dementia is a neurocognitive disorder characterized by a decline in memory, reasoning, judgment, and other cognitive functions that interfere with daily functioning. Aricept, also known as Donepezil, is specifically indicated for Alzheimer's disease, which is the most common form of dementia. Option A, Delirium only, is incorrect as Aricept is not typically used to treat delirium. Delirium is a sudden onset, fluctuating disturbance in attention, awareness, and cognition, often due to underlying medical conditions or substance intoxication. Option C, Delirium and dementia, is incorrect because while Aricept is used for dementia, it is not considered a first-line treatment for delirium. Delirium and dementia are distinct conditions with different underlying causes and treatment approaches. Option D, Pseudodementia, is also incorrect as Aricept is not indicated for pseudodementia. Pseudodementia refers to a condition where cognitive symptoms mimic dementia but are actually due to underlying psychiatric conditions like depression. Understanding the specific indications of medications used to treat psychobiological disorders is crucial for healthcare professionals working with individuals experiencing cognitive impairments. Knowing the correct use of medications like Aricept can help optimize patient outcomes and quality of life for those living with dementia.

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