ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Quizlet Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is an INDICATOR of effective communication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Feedback is an essential indicator of effective communication because it allows the sender to understand how the message was received by the receiver. It provides an opportunity to clarify any misunderstandings, confirm understanding, and ensure that the communication has been successful. Without feedback, the sender cannot be sure if their message was accurately understood or if further explanation or clarification is needed. Effective communication involves a two-way exchange, and feedback plays a crucial role in ensuring that the message is effectively transmitted and received.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is a common cause of secondary osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis is a common cause of secondary osteoporosis. Chronic inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis can lead to bone loss due to increased osteoclast activity and decreased bone formation. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at an increased risk for developing osteoporosis, resulting in decreased bone density and increased fracture risk. Monitoring and managing bone health is an important aspect of care for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis to help prevent osteoporosis-related complications.
Question 3 of 9
Nurse Pedrito sees a 65 year-old male, who is recovering from stroke. He noticed that Mang Jose exhibits signs of unilateral neglect. Which behavior is suggestive of this unilateral neglect? Mang Jose is _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unilateral neglect is a common condition following a stroke where the individual fails to attend to one side of their body or to the space on that side. In this case, Mang Jose exhibiting signs of unilateral neglect by only shaving one side of his face, neglecting the other side. This behavior demonstrates a lack of awareness or attention to the affected side of his body, indicating a classic symptom of unilateral neglect.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with a thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Subacute thyroiditis is an inflammatory disorder of the thyroid gland that causes gland destruction and release of pre-formed thyroid hormone leading to hyperthyroidism. The fine-needle aspiration biopsy findings of granulomatous inflammation and multinucleated giant cells are characteristic of subacute thyroiditis. This condition typically presents with a painful, tender thyroid gland and may be preceded by a viral illness. Unlike Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune disorder resulting in hyperthyroidism with diffuse goiter and positive thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins, subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limited and resolves spontaneously without the need for long-term treatment.
Question 5 of 9
It mandates the compulsory Immunization of children below 8 years
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Republic Act 9173, also known as the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, mandates the compulsory immunization of children below 8 years. This law ensures that young children receive necessary vaccines to protect them from preventable diseases and promote public health. RA 9173 is a significant legislation that highlights the importance of immunization in safeguarding the well-being of children in the Philippines.
Question 6 of 9
A woman in active labor requests pain relief. Which pharmacological option is safe and effective for pain management during labor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrous oxide, also known as "laughing gas," is a safe and effective pharmacological option for pain management during labor. Nitrous oxide is commonly used in labor and delivery settings as it has minimal effects on the baby and allows the woman to remain in control of her pain management. It provides quick pain relief when inhaled and can be adjusted to the woman's needs during labor. Ibuprofen, morphine, and diazepam are not typically used for pain management during labor due to their potential risks and side effects, especially for the baby.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of heart failure presents with dependent edema in the lower extremities. Which nursing action is most appropriate for managing the patient's edema?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action for managing a patient with dependent edema in the lower extremities is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics help the body remove excess fluid, reducing swelling and edema in the extremities. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's orders for administering diuretics to ensure the patient's fluid balance is managed effectively. While elevating the legs above heart level and applying compression stockings may provide temporary relief, addressing the underlying cause of fluid retention with diuretics is essential for long-term management of the edema in a patient with heart failure. Encouraging increased fluid intake would not be appropriate in this case, as the focus should be on reducing fluid overload rather than increasing fluid intake.
Question 8 of 9
Upon history-taking, the nurse notes that the cough of a patient with lung cancer usually STARTS off to be ___________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The cough of a patient with lung cancer typically starts off as dry and persistent. This is because lung cancer can irritate the airways, leading to a persistent dry cough as an early symptom. As the cancer progresses, the cough may become more productive with blood-tinged or dark yellow sputum. However, in the early stages, the cough is often dry and persistent, which can be a warning sign for healthcare providers to further investigate potential underlying issues such as lung cancer.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a hyperdense lesion within the brain parenchyma, suggestive of acute bleeding. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intracerebral hemorrhage is characterized by bleeding directly into the brain parenchyma, leading to the sudden onset of severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, and neurological deficits. The hyperdense lesion seen on imaging is caused by the presence of blood within the brain tissue. This condition is often associated with hypertension and can be life-threatening if not promptly diagnosed and managed. Subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood between the brain and its outermost covering (dura mater), typically presenting with a slower onset of symptoms compared to intracerebral hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the space between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater (subarachnoid space), commonly caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. Ischemic stroke results from the blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a lack of oxygen and nutrients to