ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is an expected normal finding in the diagnostic positions test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: A slight amount of lid lag when moving the eyes from a superior position to an inferior position. In the diagnostic positions test, when the eyes move from an extreme superior position to an inferior position, a slight amount of lid lag is expected due to the normal anatomical structure and mechanics of the eye muscles and eyelids. This lag is a normal finding and not indicative of any underlying pathology. Rationale: A: Convergence of vision in both eyes is not a normal finding in the diagnostic positions test as convergence refers to the inward movement of both eyes towards each other to maintain single binocular vision. B: Parallel movement of both eyes is not a specific finding in the diagnostic positions test. The test is designed to assess the movement of the eyes in different directions. C: Nystagmus in extreme superior gaze is not a normal finding and indicates an abnormality in eye movement coordination, not an expected finding in the diagnostic positions test.
Question 2 of 9
During an otoscopic examination, the nurse notes an area of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall. What does this finding suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of black and white dots on the tympanic membrane and ear canal wall during an otoscopic examination suggests a yeast or fungal infection. This is because yeast or fungal infections commonly present as white or black dots in the ear canal. Malignancy would typically manifest as abnormal growths or masses, not dots. Viral infections usually do not present as specific dots on the tympanic membrane. Blood in the middle ear would appear as red or pinkish fluid behind the eardrum, not as black and white dots. Therefore, the correct answer is D: Yeast or fungal infection.
Question 3 of 9
The muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: sternomastoid and trapezius. CN XI, also known as the spinal accessory nerve, innervates the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles. The sternomastoid muscle is responsible for neck rotation and flexion, while the trapezius muscle is responsible for shoulder movement and stability. The other choices are incorrect because the omohyoid and sternomandibular muscles are not innervated by CN XI. The spinal accessory nerve does not innervate the omohyoid muscle, and the sternomandibular muscle is not a recognized muscle in the neck. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
When performing an assessment of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease, the nurse notices bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs. The skin is puffy and tight but of normal colour. There is no increased redness or tenderness, and the peripheral pulses are equal and strong. In this situation, which of the following is the most likely cause of the edema?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart failure. In this case, the most likely cause of the bilateral pitting edema in the lower legs is heart failure. The pitting edema along with the history of hypertension and coronary artery disease suggests fluid overload due to the heart's inability to pump effectively. The normal skin color, absence of redness or tenderness, and strong peripheral pulses indicate that the edema is not caused by venous thrombosis, local inflammation, or blockage of lymphatic drainage. In heart failure, fluid can accumulate in the lower extremities due to the heart's reduced ability to pump blood efficiently, leading to increased pressure in the veins and subsequent fluid leakage into the surrounding tissues.
Question 5 of 9
A patient reports a severe throbbing headache in the frontotemporal area of his head that he experienced while studying for an examination, He says that the headache was somewhat relieved when he lay down. He tells the nurse that his mother also used to get these headaches. The nurse suspects that he may be suffering from:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: migraine headaches. The patient's symptoms of severe throbbing headache in the frontotemporal area, triggered by stress (studying for an exam), partially relieved by lying down, and family history of similar headaches are indicative of migraines. Migraines commonly present with these characteristics, often exacerbated by stress and have a genetic component. A: Hypertension does not typically present with throbbing headaches in a specific area or relief with lying down. B: Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, unilateral headaches around the eye area, not frontotemporal. C: Tension headaches usually present as dull, constant pressure-type headaches, not throbbing, and do not have the familial pattern described by the patient.
Question 6 of 9
While performing a well-child assessment on a 5-year-old, the nurse notes the presence of palpable bilateral cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. The nodes are approximately 5 cm in size, round, mobile, and nontender. The nurse suspects that this:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: child may have an infection. Enlarged, palpable, mobile, and non-tender lymph nodes in multiple areas suggest an immune response to an infection. In children, common causes include viral or bacterial infections. The size and characteristics of the lymph nodes described in the question are not typical of chronic allergies or a normal finding in a healthy child. Referral for additional evaluation would be premature without first considering the possibility of an infection, which is the most likely cause based on the provided information.
Question 7 of 9
While performing an examination of a 3-year-old with a suspected ear infection, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Performing the otoscopic examination at the end of the assessment is the best approach for a 3-year-old with a suspected ear infection. This allows the child to become familiar with the nurse and the environment, reducing anxiety and increasing cooperation. It also prevents the child from becoming upset early in the examination, making it easier to complete the assessment. Choice A is incorrect because omitting the otoscopic exam based on the presence of a fever could lead to a missed diagnosis. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the ear up and back before inserting the speculum is not recommended as it may cause discomfort and increase resistance from the child. Choice C is incorrect as having the mother leave the room may increase the child's anxiety and make the examination more challenging.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's palpebral fissures are not symmetrical. On examination, the nurse may find that there has been damage to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (CN VII) is correct: 1. Palpebral fissures are controlled by muscles innervated by CN VII (facial nerve). 2. Damage to CN VII can result in facial asymmetry, affecting palpebral fissures. 3. CN III (choice A) controls eye movement, not palpebral fissures. 4. CN V (choice B) controls facial sensation, not palpebral fissures. 5. CN VIII (choice D) controls hearing and balance, not palpebral fissures. Summary: Choice C is correct as damage to CN VII affects palpebral fissures due to facial muscle innervation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not control the muscles responsible for palpebral fissures.
Question 9 of 9
During an ophthalmoscopic examination of a patient, the examiner notes areas of exudate that look like"cotton wool" or fluffy grey-white cumulus clouds. Which of the possible problems below does this finding indicate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetes. The presence of "cotton wool" or fluffy grey-white cumulus clouds on ophthalmoscopic examination indicates retinal nerve fiber layer infarcts due to microvascular damage, which is a common finding in diabetic retinopathy. This occurs due to ischemia and subsequent axonal swelling. In diabetes, hyperglycemia can lead to damage in the blood vessels supplying the retina, resulting in microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and ultimately vision loss if left untreated. Summary of other choices: B: Hyperthyroidism - This condition primarily affects the thyroid gland and does not directly cause the characteristic retinal findings described. C: Glaucoma - Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage, which does not typically present with the specific retinal findings mentioned. D: Hypotension - Low blood pressure may lead to retinal artery occlusion or ischemic optic neuropathy,