ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Economic stability, as it directly influences access to healthcare, housing, education, and nutritious food, impacting overall health. Genetic predisposition (A) refers to inherited traits, not external factors. Personal health behaviors (B) are individual choices. Biological factors (C) focus on physical attributes, not societal influences. Economic stability (D) aligns with social determinants by addressing social, economic, and environmental factors that shape health outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
During secondary prevention activities, what action is a healthcare professional performing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing early treatment for disease. Secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment of a disease to prevent its progression. By providing early treatment, healthcare professionals aim to minimize the impact of the disease and prevent complications. Conducting health screenings (A) is part of primary prevention to identify risk factors before a disease develops. Administering medications (C) is a treatment intervention but not specific to secondary prevention. Referral to specialized care (D) may be needed but does not directly involve providing early treatment for the disease as in secondary prevention.
Question 3 of 9
Why is cultural competence important in community health nursing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cultural competence in community health nursing enables nurses to provide care that respects and responds to the health beliefs and practices of diverse patients. This is important for building trust, improving communication, and enhancing patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because cultural training is not mandatory for all healthcare providers. Choice C is incorrect because cultural competence goes beyond medical practices to encompass understanding and respecting patients' cultural backgrounds. Choice D is incorrect because cultural competence does not prevent misunderstandings, but rather helps nurses navigate and address them effectively.
Question 4 of 9
Which is a key aspect of the Health Belief Model?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perceived susceptibility. This is a key aspect of the Health Belief Model because it refers to an individual's belief about their risk of getting a particular health condition. It is crucial in determining whether a person will take preventive actions. Perceived severity (B) and perceived benefits (D) are also important components of the model, but perceived susceptibility is considered the starting point for behavior change. Perceived barriers (C) are obstacles that may prevent an individual from taking action, but they are not the main focus in the Health Belief Model.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement is incorrect regarding an informed consent signed by a patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it is incorrect to state that the nurse is responsible for obtaining the consent for surgery. Informed consent for surgery is typically obtained by the physician performing the procedure, not the nurse. Nurses can assist in the process by providing information and clarifying details, but ultimately it is the physician's responsibility to ensure the patient understands the procedure and consents to it. Choice B is correct as minors under 18 years of age generally require a parent or legal guardian to sign a consent form on their behalf. Choice C is correct as nurses can witness the client signing the consent form as a part of the process. Choice D is also correct as it is indeed the nurse's responsibility to ensure the patient has been educated by the physician before obtaining informed consent.
Question 6 of 9
Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movements and staggering walk due to disorders in the cerebellum is called:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is D: Ataxia. Ataxia refers to the failure of muscle coordination, resulting in unsteady movements and a staggering walk. The cerebellum controls balance and coordination, so disorders in this area can lead to ataxia. A: Anoxia refers to a lack of oxygen supply to tissues, not related to muscle coordination. B: Dyslexia is a learning disorder involving difficulty with reading, unrelated to muscle coordination. C: Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower half of the body, not specifically related to muscle coordination issues seen in ataxia.
Question 7 of 9
Which action represents a primary prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, administering vaccines to prevent disease. This is a primary prevention strategy as it aims to prevent the occurrence of disease before it occurs. Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce an immune response against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infection and transmission. Educating children on handwashing (A) is important for hygiene but falls under health promotion, not primary prevention. Screening for early signs of disease (C) is secondary prevention, aiming to detect disease at an early stage to prevent complications. Providing treatment for acute illnesses (D) is tertiary prevention, focusing on managing and minimizing the impact of existing conditions.
Question 8 of 9
The client diagnosed with a mild concussion is being discharged from the emergency department. Which discharge instruction should the nurse teach the client's significant other?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Awaken the client every two (2) hours. This instruction is important to monitor for any changes in the client's condition, such as worsening symptoms or neurological deficits. By waking the client every two hours, it allows for assessment of responsiveness and orientation. This is crucial in detecting any signs of deterioration or complications post-concussion. Choice B is incorrect because monitoring for increased intracranial pressure requires specialized equipment and expertise beyond what can be done at home. Choice C is incorrect as hypervigilance is not typically a common concern after a mild concussion. Choice D is incorrect because offering food every three to four hours is not specific to the client's needs post-concussion.
Question 9 of 9
Which best describes the role of a community health nurse in promoting health?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because advocating for health policy changes is a key role of community health nurses in promoting health at a population level. They work to influence policies that address social determinants of health and improve overall community well-being. Providing direct care (B) is more aligned with clinical nursing roles. Educating the community (C) is important but not the primary role of a community health nurse. Conducting research (D) may inform practice but is not the primary function of promoting health in the community.