ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a sentinel event?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a sentinel event is a serious, unexpected occurrence in a healthcare setting that results in death or serious physical or psychological harm to a patient. A patient suicide while in a healthcare facility meets this criteria. A is incorrect as a fall with no injury is not a sentinel event. B is incorrect as a medication error resulting in no harm is not a sentinel event. D is incorrect as a near miss incident, although serious, does not result in harm to the patient.
Question 2 of 9
A client experiences an air emboli, resulting in a stroke, during an IV start. This can be classified as which type of risk?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diagnostic procedure. Air emboli during an IV start can lead to a stroke, making it a risk associated with a diagnostic procedure. The air emboli occurred during the IV start, which is a diagnostic procedure aimed at obtaining information about the patient's health status. Patient dissatisfaction (A) is not the main concern here, as the focus is on the medical outcome. While a medical-legal incident (B) may result from this situation, the primary classification is related to the diagnostic nature of the procedure. This incident is not primarily a medication error (C) as the main issue is the introduction of air into the bloodstream during the IV start, rather than a mistake in medication administration.
Question 3 of 9
In dealing with a conflict on a unit, the nurse manager decides to ask one of the staff nurses, who is not moving towards resolution, to transfer to another unit. What tactic has the manager implemented?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Suppression. The nurse manager chose to suppress the conflict by asking the staff nurse to transfer, avoiding direct confrontation. This tactic aims to remove the conflict from the unit without addressing the root cause. Avoidance (A) is not correct as the manager did take action. Withdrawal (B) implies the nurse manager removed themselves from the conflict, which is not the case. Competition (D) involves a win-lose approach, which is not evident in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
Characteristics that an interviewer will be most interested in when selecting a new staff will be: (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: How many hours of overtime you will work. Interviewers are primarily interested in your clinical competence, ability to work as a team member, and confidence in your skills. Overtime hours are not typically a deciding factor in selecting a new staff member as it relates more to scheduling and workload management, which can be negotiated after hiring. It is important to focus on demonstrating your skills, teamwork, and confidence during the interview to showcase your suitability for the position.
Question 5 of 9
A resident on night call refuses to answer pages from the staff nurse on the night shift and complains that she calls too often with minor problems. The nurse feels offended and reacts with frequent, middle-of-the-night phone calls to 'get back' at him. The behavior displayed by the resident and the nurse is an example of what kind of conflict?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disruptive conflict. This type of conflict occurs when individuals are unwilling to cooperate or communicate effectively, leading to negative consequences. In this scenario, the resident and nurse are engaging in disruptive conflict by refusing to answer calls and retaliating with more calls. This behavior disrupts the communication and collaboration necessary for effective patient care. A: Perceived conflict is when individuals believe there is a conflict, even if it may not exist. In this case, the conflict is real and not just perceived. C: Competitive conflict involves individuals trying to outdo each other or win at the expense of the other party. This is not evident in the scenario provided. D: Felt conflict refers to the emotional response to a conflict situation. While there are emotions involved in the scenario, the main issue is the disruption in communication rather than just feelings.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screening for hypertension. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease in its early stages to prevent further progression. Screening for hypertension helps identify individuals at risk and enables timely intervention to prevent complications. Administering flu vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention. Performing a mastectomy (C) is a treatment method for existing breast cancer, falling under tertiary prevention. Providing rehabilitation after surgery (D) focuses on restoring function post-treatment, also part of tertiary prevention.
Question 7 of 9
What is the primary function of discipline?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary function of discipline is to teach. Discipline aims to guide individuals towards desired behaviors, values, and attitudes through positive reinforcement, correction, and guidance. It involves setting boundaries, providing structure, and helping individuals learn from their mistakes. Punishing (choice A) focuses solely on consequences without teaching alternatives. Evaluation (choice B) assesses performance but doesn't necessarily teach. Ridicule (choice D) is harmful and counterproductive, not a purpose of discipline. In summary, discipline primarily serves to educate and cultivate positive behavior.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is the correct definition of 'chain of command'?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The hierarchy of authority and responsibility. 1. 'Chain of command' refers to the structure where authority flows downwards and responsibility flows upwards. 2. It establishes the order in which decisions are made and instructions are passed down. 3. It ensures clear communication and accountability within an organization. 4. The other choices are incorrect because B talks about a relationship without authority, C refers to linear authority, and D mentions the tendency of people to perform as expected, which are not related to the concept of chain of command.
Question 9 of 9
What is the primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary advantage of utilizing a modular nursing model is enhanced teamwork. This is because modular nursing promotes collaboration among healthcare professionals, leading to better coordination of care and improved patient outcomes. It allows for flexibility and efficiency in assigning roles and responsibilities based on individual strengths and expertise. Improved teamwork fosters effective communication, enhances job satisfaction, and ultimately benefits patient care. Patient satisfaction, cost reduction, and communication are important aspects but not the primary advantage of a modular nursing model.