ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is an action of the drug Metformin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for the management of type 2 diabetes. One of the primary mechanisms of action of Metformin is to decrease hepatic glucose production. It works by inhibiting gluconeogenesis, which is the process by which the liver produces glucose. By reducing glucose production in the liver, Metformin helps to lower blood sugar levels and improve insulin sensitivity. This action helps to control hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes. The other options provided do not describe the mechanism of action of Metformin, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.
Question 3 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline requires 2-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect, increasing neurotransmitters gradually. After 2 weeks, persistent depression is expected, so 'It can take several weeks' educates on the timeline, encouraging adherence. Choice B dismisses feelings, risking trust. Choice C assumes failure prematurely. Choice D exaggerates to months, discouraging patience. A provides accurate, supportive guidance, aligning with tricyclic pharmacology, making it the best response.
Question 4 of 5
A 33-year-old man with a history of chronic epididymoorchitis is treated with long-term tetracycline antibiotic therapy. During the 3 months of therapy, he develops discoloration of his teeth. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tetracycline causes tooth discoloration by binding to calcium in developing teeth . Drug toxicity is vague. Folate synthesis , hepatic enzymes , and osteoclasts (E) aren't involved. This chelation stains enamel, a known effect with prolonged use.
Question 5 of 5
Penicillin G has been prescribed for a patient. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse perform for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin G is a beta-lactam antibiotic that can cause severe allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Having epinephrine on hand is crucial for managing such emergencies. Collecting a culture and sensitivity before the first dose ensures the infection is caused by a penicillin-susceptible organism. Mouth ulcers are not a common side effect of penicillin, but monitoring for superinfections like oral thrush is important. Limiting fluid intake to 1000 mL/day is incorrect, as adequate hydration helps maintain renal function and prevents crystalluria. No particular interventions are required is incorrect, as penicillin requires careful monitoring for efficacy and adverse effects.