ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a treatment option for aplastic anemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing and the treatment of aplastic anemia, the correct answer is B) Bone marrow transplantation. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the bone marrow's failure to produce an adequate number of blood cells. Bone marrow transplantation is a definitive treatment option for severe cases of aplastic anemia where the patient's bone marrow is replaced with healthy donor marrow to restore normal blood cell production. Option A) IVIG (intravenous immunoglobulin) is not a primary treatment for aplastic anemia. IVIG is typically used in conditions involving immune deficiencies or autoimmune diseases but is not the mainstay of treatment for aplastic anemia. Option C) Splenectomy is not a standard treatment for aplastic anemia. Aplastic anemia primarily involves dysfunction of the bone marrow, so removing the spleen would not address the root cause of the condition. Option D) Immune suppression is sometimes used in non-severe cases of aplastic anemia where the immune system is attacking the bone marrow. However, it is not as effective as bone marrow transplantation in severe cases where the bone marrow is significantly compromised. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate treatment options for aplastic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. Knowing when bone marrow transplantation is indicated and its implications for the patient's care and prognosis is essential for providing safe and effective nursing care in this specialized area.
Question 2 of 5
A 5-year-old girl was brought to the ED with altered mental status. Kernig and Brudzinski signs were present. CSF shows: WBCs 1500/ul (80% neutrophils), Sugar 20 mg/dl, Protein 400 mg/dl, Positive Gram stain. You would interpret the CSF as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings in this scenario is B) Bacterial Meningitis. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF typically shows elevated white blood cells (WBCs), predominantly neutrophils, low glucose levels, high protein levels, and a positive Gram stain indicative of bacterial presence. The CSF findings in this case align with bacterial meningitis, which is a medical emergency requiring prompt treatment with antibiotics to prevent serious complications such as brain damage or death. Option A) Normal is incorrect because the CSF findings clearly indicate an abnormality with the presence of elevated WBCs, low glucose, and high protein levels. Option C) Viral encephalitis typically presents with lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF, and Option D) TB Meningitis would show a lymphocytic predominance in the CSF. Educational Context: Understanding the interpretation of CSF findings is crucial in pediatric nursing, especially in emergency situations like suspected meningitis. Recognizing the specific patterns associated with different types of meningitis is essential for timely and accurate diagnosis and management. This knowledge can significantly impact patient outcomes by facilitating rapid initiation of appropriate treatment.
Question 3 of 5
Incubation period of measles is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the incubation period of infectious diseases like measles is crucial for timely diagnosis and management. The correct answer is C) 1-2 weeks for the incubation period of measles. This means that after exposure to the measles virus, it can take 1-2 weeks for symptoms to appear. Option A) 2-4 days is incorrect because measles has a longer incubation period than just a few days. Option B) 5 days is also incorrect for the same reason. Option D) 3-4 weeks is too long for the typical measles incubation period. Educationally, knowing the specific incubation periods of common childhood illnesses helps nurses and healthcare providers in diagnosing and managing these conditions effectively. Measles is highly contagious, and understanding its incubation period aids in infection control measures and patient education. This knowledge is essential for providing safe and quality care to pediatric patients.
Question 4 of 5
The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in newborn is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding congenital heart diseases is crucial for providing safe and effective care to newborns. The correct answer to the question is C) d-Transposition of great arteries. d-Transposition of the great arteries is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in newborns. In this condition, the aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, leading to two separate circulatory systems. This results in severe cyanosis shortly after birth, requiring prompt medical intervention. Option A) Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic heart defect characterized by four components: pulmonary stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, and right ventricular hypertrophy. While it is a common congenital heart defect, it is not the most common cyanotic heart disease in newborns. Option B) Ebstein anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect characterized by the displacement of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It is not typically associated with cyanosis in newborns. Option D) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a severe congenital heart defect where the left side of the heart is underdeveloped. While it can present with cyanosis, it is not as common as d-Transposition of the great arteries in newborns. Understanding the prevalence, pathophysiology, and clinical manifestations of congenital heart diseases in newborns is essential for pediatric nurses to recognize early signs, provide appropriate care, and collaborate with the healthcare team to optimize outcomes for these vulnerable patients.
Question 5 of 5
Manifestation of the initial attack of rheumatic fever with carditis may include all Except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Harsh basal systolic murmur heard best on the second right intercostal space. This is because a harsh basal systolic murmur heard best on the second right intercostal space is not a manifestation typically associated with the initial attack of rheumatic fever with carditis. A) Tachycardia out of proportion to fever is a common manifestation of carditis in rheumatic fever due to inflammation of the heart muscle. B) Pericardial rub can be present in cases of pericarditis, which can be a complication of rheumatic fever. C) Heart failure can occur in severe cases of carditis due to the damage to the heart valves and muscle. Educationally, understanding the manifestations of rheumatic fever, especially in the context of carditis, is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate care to patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms helps in early detection and management of complications, leading to better outcomes for the pediatric population. It is essential for nurses to be able to differentiate between common and atypical symptoms to provide effective care and support to children with rheumatic fever.