Which of the following is a treatment option for aplastic anemia?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is a treatment option for aplastic anemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of aplastic anemia, a bone marrow transplantation (Option B) is the most effective option. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a deficiency of all types of blood cells caused by bone marrow failure. A bone marrow transplant can provide healthy stem cells to replace the dysfunctional ones, potentially curing the condition. This treatment option addresses the root cause of the disease and offers a chance for long-term remission. IVIG (Option A) is used in certain autoimmune conditions but is not a primary treatment for aplastic anemia. Splenectomy (Option C) is more commonly indicated for conditions like immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) but is not a standard treatment for aplastic anemia. Immune suppression (Option D) may be used in some cases of aplastic anemia, particularly if a bone marrow transplant is not feasible, but it is not the first-line treatment. Understanding the appropriate treatment for aplastic anemia is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with this condition. Knowing the rationale behind each treatment option helps nurses make informed decisions and provide optimal care to their patients. It is important for nurses to recognize the significance of a bone marrow transplant in addressing the underlying cause of aplastic anemia and its potential to offer a cure or long-term remission for affected children.

Question 2 of 5

A 5-year-old girl was brought to the ED with altered mental status. Kernig and Brudzinski signs were present. CSF shows: WBCs 1500/ul (80% neutrophils), Sugar 20 mg/dl, Protein 400 mg/dl, Positive Gram stain. You would interpret the CSF as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the CSF findings in this scenario is B) Bacterial Meningitis. This conclusion is reached based on several key indicators present in the CSF analysis: notably, the significantly elevated white blood cell count (1500/ul, 80% neutrophils), low glucose level (20 mg/dl), high protein level (400 mg/dl), and a positive Gram stain. In bacterial meningitis, the CSF typically shows a high white blood cell count with predominantly neutrophils, low glucose due to bacterial consumption, high protein due to increased permeability of the blood-brain barrier, and a positive Gram stain indicating the presence of bacteria. These findings align with the case presented and support the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The other options can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of the CSF findings in each condition. Viral encephalitis would typically show a lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF, normal or slightly low glucose levels, and a negative Gram stain. TB Meningitis would usually present with a lymphocytic pleocytosis, low glucose, high protein, and acid-fast bacilli seen on staining, which contrasts with the neutrophilic pleocytosis and positive Gram stain in this case. Understanding how to interpret CSF findings in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses working in emergency departments to promptly identify and initiate appropriate treatment for serious conditions like bacterial meningitis. This knowledge can help improve patient outcomes by ensuring timely interventions and preventing complications associated with central nervous system infections.

Question 3 of 5

Incubation period of measles is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) 1-2 weeks. The incubation period of measles refers to the time between exposure to the virus and the onset of symptoms. Measles typically has an incubation period of 1-2 weeks before symptoms such as fever, cough, runny nose, and rash appear. This window allows the virus to replicate in the body before causing noticeable illness. Option A) 2-4 days is incorrect because this timeframe is too short for the measles virus to cause symptoms. Measles has a longer incubation period. Option B) 5 days is also incorrect as it falls within the shorter range of the actual incubation period of measles. Symptoms typically do not appear this early. Option D) 3-4 weeks is too long for the measles virus to remain dormant in the body before symptoms manifest. Measles usually presents within 1-2 weeks post-exposure. Understanding the incubation period of measles is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric nurses, as it helps in identifying and managing potential cases to prevent further spread of the highly contagious virus. This knowledge also aids in implementing appropriate infection control measures in healthcare settings and in educating patients and families about the disease timeline.

Question 4 of 5

The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in newborn is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) d-Transposition of great arteries. In newborns, d-Transposition of great arteries is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease. This condition occurs when the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle, leading to two separate circulatory systems. This results in deoxygenated blood being pumped back to the body without passing through the lungs, causing cyanosis. Option A) Tetralogy of Fallot is a cyanotic heart defect, but it is not the most common one in newborns. It consists of four abnormalities in the heart's structure. Option B) Ebstein anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect where the tricuspid valve is abnormally positioned, leading to blood flow issues. Option D) Hypoplastic left ventricle syndrome involves underdevelopment of the left side of the heart, causing decreased blood flow to the body. Understanding congenital heart diseases in newborns is crucial for pediatric nurses as they care for infants with these conditions. Recognizing the most common conditions helps in early identification, appropriate interventions, and improved outcomes. Nurses play a vital role in educating parents about the condition, treatment options, and providing support throughout the child's care journey.

Question 5 of 5

Manifestation of the initial attack of rheumatic fever with carditis may include all Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the manifestations of rheumatic fever with carditis is crucial for providing effective care. The correct answer, option D, is "Harsh basal systolic murmur heard best on the second right intercostal space." This is because the characteristic murmur associated with carditis in rheumatic fever is typically best heard at the left lower sternal border, not the second right intercostal space. Option A, "Tachycardia out of proportion to fever," is a common finding in carditis due to the heart's inflammatory response, making it an expected manifestation. Option B, "Pericardial rub," is associated with inflammation of the pericardium, which can occur in carditis. Option C, "Heart failure," can also occur as a complication of carditis due to the strain on the heart from inflammation and damage. Educationally, it is important for nursing students to differentiate between the various manifestations of rheumatic fever with carditis to accurately assess and manage pediatric patients with this condition. Understanding the typical findings, such as specific murmur locations, helps in early detection and appropriate intervention to prevent further complications. This knowledge equips nurses to provide holistic care to pediatric patients with rheumatic fever, improving outcomes and quality of life.

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