ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is a preferred mode of transmission of HIV from a mother to a child
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because HIV can be transmitted from a mother to a child through multiple modes: during delivery through mixing of blood, during pregnancy through the placenta, and via breastmilk during lactation. Each mode presents a risk of transmission due to the presence of the virus in bodily fluids. Therefore, all of the above options are preferred modes of transmission for HIV from a mother to a child. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully encompass all the possible routes of transmission, making them incorrect.
Question 2 of 9
Peptidoglycan is typically found in the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.
Question 3 of 9
The function of beta-lactamase in bacteria is to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Break down antibiotics like penicillin. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by bacteria to inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin by breaking the beta-lactam ring. This mechanism helps bacteria resist the antibiotic's effects. The other choices are incorrect because beta-lactamase does not enhance protein synthesis, facilitate DNA replication, or transport nutrients. It specifically targets and deactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, making choice A the most appropriate answer.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most often live in ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blastospores. Blastospores are a type of fungal spore that requires a moist environment to survive. They are commonly found in water bodies like ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans. Mycorrhizae (A) are symbiotic associations between fungi and plant roots, not solely dependent on a moist environment. Armillaria gallica (B) is a type of fungus that can survive in various environmental conditions, not specifically reliant on a moist environment. Choice C is a duplicate of Blastospores, making it incorrect.
Question 5 of 9
Study of bacteriological sputum specimens stained by the Ziel-Neelsen method revealed some bright-red acid-resistant bacilli that were found in groups or singularly. When inoculated onto the nutrient media, the signs of their growth show up on the 10-15 day. These bacteria relate to the following family:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 1. Bright-red acid-resistant bacilli indicate the presence of mycolic acids in the cell wall, characteristic of Mycobacterium species. 2. Found in groups or singularly suggests the clumping nature of acid-fast bacilli. 3. Growth appearing after 10-15 days on nutrient media is consistent with the slow growth rate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 4. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis (B) and Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis (D) are not acid-fast bacilli and do not match the growth characteristics described. 5. Histoplasma dubrosii (C) is a fungus, not a bacterium, and does not exhibit acid-fast staining or the described growth pattern.
Question 6 of 9
Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according to the coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens). This is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The soil is low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value, which indicates that the contamination is recent. Step 2: The soil is contaminated according to coli titer, suggesting the presence of coliform bacteria typically found in fresh fecal matter. Step 3: The soil is low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens), which is an indicator of recent fecal contamination. Step 4: Based on the above steps, the correct answer is A: Fresh fecal contamination, as the presence of coliform bacteria and recent anaerobe titer levels point to recent fecal contamination. Summary: B: Old fecal contamination - Incorrect because the indicators suggest recent contamination. C: Insufficient intensity of soil humification - Incorrect as it is not related to the specific indicators mentioned in the question. D: Constant entry of organic protein contaminations - Incorrect as the indicators point towards fecal contamination, not protein
Question 7 of 9
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 8 of 9
Infections of the CNS can be caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three choices, Clostridium botulinum, Morbillivirus morbillorum, and Clostridium tetani, can cause infections of the CNS. Clostridium botulinum can lead to botulism, affecting the nervous system. Morbillivirus morbillorum can cause measles, which can lead to encephalitis. Clostridium tetani can cause tetanus, affecting the central nervous system. Therefore, all three choices can cause infections of the CNS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually because each pathogen can cause CNS infections.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovered. Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinfection. This is because the patient fully recovered from the initial syphilis infection after antibiotic therapy, indicating the elimination of the pathogen. Subsequently getting infected again with Treponema pallidum suggests a new exposure to the same pathogen, resulting in a new infection. Recurrence (B) would imply the reactivation of the same infection, which is not the case here. Superinfection (C) refers to a new infection that occurs on top of an existing infection, which is not the scenario described. Secondary infection (D) typically refers to an infection that occurs after an initial infection weakens the immune system, which is not the case in this scenario.