Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiandrogen that is palliative in advanced carcinoma prostate when combined with a GnRH agonist:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flutamide. Flutamide is a non-steroidal antiandrogen used in advanced prostate carcinoma. It works by blocking androgen receptors in the prostate, thereby inhibiting the growth of prostate cancer cells. When combined with a GnRH agonist, it helps reduce testosterone levels further, providing palliative treatment for advanced prostate cancer. A: Cyproterone acetate is another antiandrogen, but it is a steroidal one and not commonly used for this purpose. B: Danazol is not typically used in the treatment of advanced prostate carcinoma. C: Finasteride is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor used for benign prostatic hyperplasia and male pattern baldness, not for advanced prostate cancer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atrophic vaginitis. In this condition, the primary treatment is usually local estrogen therapy to alleviate symptoms of vaginal dryness and discomfort. Estrogen is added as an adjuvant to progestin to address the specific symptoms of atrophic vaginitis, making it the correct choice. A: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is typically treated with hormonal therapies targeting estrogen and progestin balance, not as an adjuvant. B: Menopausal syndrome is commonly treated with hormone replacement therapy, where estrogen is the primary drug, not an adjuvant. C: Osteoporosis treatment focuses on medications that help prevent bone loss and improve bone density, with estrogen not typically used as an adjuvant.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lower than that for contraception. Estrogen dose for hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women is lower than that for contraception because the goal is to provide symptom relief and reduce health risks without stimulating ovulation. Estrogen dose for contraception needs to be higher to suppress ovulation effectively. Choices A and B are incorrect as they incorrectly assume equivalence or higher dose needed for hormone replacement therapy. Choice D is incorrect as estrogen dose for hormone replacement therapy is generally consistent and not variable based on age.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Certainly! Bisphosphonates are indicated for osteoporosis because they help prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures by inhibiting bone resorption. This is achieved by promoting bone mineralization and increasing bone density. Bisphosphonates are not indicated for organophosphate poisoning, dementia, or Steven's Johnson syndrome as they do not have any therapeutic effect in these conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parathormone. In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to low calcium levels. Parathormone replacement therapy, in the form of synthetic PTH, is the most effective treatment to restore calcium balance. Calcium lactate (B) is a calcium supplement but does not address the underlying cause. Vitamin D (C) helps with calcium absorption but does not directly treat the PTH deficiency. Pamidronate (D) is a bisphosphonate used for conditions like osteoporosis, not hypoparathyroidism.