ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.
Question 2 of 5
Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
Question 4 of 5
In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with major depressive disorder is being treated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Memory loss, especially short-term memory loss, is a common side effect associated with electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). During ECT treatment, the electrical currents passed through the brain can disrupt short-term memory formation. This side effect is usually temporary, but patients should be closely monitored for any changes in memory function during and after the treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not commonly associated with ECT. Hypertension, weight gain, and hyperglycemia are not typically observed as side effects of ECT.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access