Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed fluoxetine should be educated that the medication may take several weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. This information helps manage patient expectations and ensures they do not discontinue the medication prematurely due to lack of immediate results. Taking the medication in the morning to avoid insomnia is not a specific requirement for fluoxetine. Consuming alcohol while taking fluoxetine is not safe and can lead to adverse effects. It is crucial to report any side effects to the healthcare provider promptly for timely management and adjustment of the treatment plan.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Deep breathing exercises are a widely recommended technique for managing anxiety and promoting relaxation. By focusing on deep, slow breaths, individuals can activate the body's relaxation response, leading to decreased anxiety levels and an overall sense of calm. This technique is easy to learn, can be practiced anywhere, and is often suggested by healthcare professionals as a first-line approach for anxiety management. Physical exercise, mindfulness meditation, and journaling are also beneficial for mental well-being but may not be the first choice when specifically targeting acute anxiety management.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.