Which of the following is a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acid-fast cell wall. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, containing high levels of mycolic acids which make it acid-fast. This property allows it to resist decolorization during acid-fast staining procedures. This distinguishes it from other bacteria. A: Producing spores is not a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Spore formation is more commonly associated with bacterial species such as Bacillus and Clostridium. B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not Gram-negative. It is classified as acid-fast Gram-positive. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not produce toxins as a key feature. Its pathogenicity is more closely related to its ability to evade host immune responses and persist in host tissues.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Altered penicillin binding proteins. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) achieves resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, by producing altered penicillin binding proteins that have reduced affinity for these antibiotics. This alteration prevents the antibiotics from binding to their target sites on the bacterial cell wall, thus rendering them ineffective. Choice A, extended spectrum beta-lactamases, are enzymes produced by some bacteria to break down beta-lactam antibiotics, but MRSA does not use this mechanism. Choice B, penicillin efflux pump, is a mechanism where bacteria pump out antibiotics from their cells, but this is not how MRSA develops resistance. Choice C, altered peptide sequence in peptidoglycan, does not directly relate to how MRSA resists beta-lactam antibiotics.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual transmission. The symptoms described are indicative of a vaginal yeast infection caused by Candida albicans. The presence of large gram-positive oval oblong cells forming pseudomycelium is characteristic of Candida infection. Sexual transmission is the most probable channel of infection as Candida can be transmitted through sexual contact. Endogenous infection (A) refers to infections originating from the body's own flora, which is not the case here. Contact infection (C) typically involves direct physical contact or fomite transmission, which is less likely in this scenario. Vector-borne transmission (D) involves transmission through vectors like mosquitoes or ticks, which is not relevant in this case.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium, which means it has an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as endotoxins. Endotoxins are released when the bacterium is destroyed, causing an inflammatory response. Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice A) is a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. Clostridium tetani (choice B) produces exotoxins, not endotoxins. Staphylococcus aureus (choice D) is also a gram-positive bacterium and does not produce endotoxins. In summary, E. coli is the correct answer because it is a gram-negative bacterium that produces endotoxins, while the other choices are gram-positive bacteria that do not produce endotoxins.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is Amebiasis (choice A) because the patient's symptoms of acute gastrointestinal disorders and prolonged stay in an African country suggest exposure to Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent of amebiasis. This protozoal infection commonly occurs in tropical regions, including Africa. Trypanosomosis (choice B) is caused by Trypanosoma species transmitted by tsetse flies, primarily found in sub-Saharan Africa. Leishmaniasis (choice C) is transmitted by sandflies and presents with skin lesions or visceral involvement, not acute gastrointestinal symptoms. Malaria (choice D) is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted by mosquitoes and typically presents with fever, not acute gastrointestinal disorders. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect based on the patient's clinical presentation and travel history.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium tetani and Bacillus anthracis. Both bacteria produce exotoxins that damage host tissues. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, which causes muscle rigidity in tetanus. Bacillus anthracis produces anthrax toxins, leading to tissue damage and systemic effects. Explanation: - Choice B (Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas aeruginosa) primarily cause infections through other mechanisms and do not produce exotoxins that damage host tissues. - Choice C (Streptococcus pneumoniae and Listeria monocytogenes) are known for causing infections but not primarily through exotoxins that damage host tissues. - Choice D (Salmonella typhi and Mycobacterium tuberculosis) cause diseases through different mechanisms and do not produce exotoxins that directly damage host tissues.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. The Filoviridae family includes Marburg virus and Ebola virus. 2. Both viruses are characterized by filamentous, enveloped structure. 3. They cause severe hemorrhagic fever in humans. 4. Lassa virus and lymphocytic choriomeningitis viruses belong to Arenaviridae. 5. Chikungunya virus and Sindbis virus are alphaviruses. 6. Crimean-Congo virus and Hantaan virus are bunyaviruses. 7. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all three bacteria (Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae) can cause bacterial meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae can cause H. influenzae meningitis, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of pneumococcal meningitis. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct. The other choices are incorrect because each of the bacteria listed can independently cause bacterial meningitis, so none of them alone can be the sole correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gram negative coccobacillus. Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of pertussis, is a gram-negative coccobacillus. This is because it is a small, rod-shaped bacterium that appears both as a bacillus (rod-shaped) and a coccus (spherical) shape. It does not retain the crystal violet stain in the Gram staining process, indicating its negative gram nature. Choice A is incorrect because pertussis is not a gram-positive bacillus. Choice C is incorrect because pertussis is not a long gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium. Choice D is incorrect as the other options do not accurately describe the morphology of Bordetella pertussis.