Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Breast tenderness is a hallmark symptom of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which occurs in the days leading up to menstruation. This symptom is often associated with hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle. Women may experience increased sensitivity and soreness in their breasts, making them feel tender or swollen. It is a common symptom of PMS and can vary in severity from one individual to another. Pelvic pain, postmenopausal bleeding, and dyspareunia are not typically considered hallmark symptoms of PMS.

Question 2 of 5

and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) during the acute phase response?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Macrophages are the primary cells responsible for producing tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) during the acute phase response. TNF-α is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that plays a critical role in initiating and propagating the inflammatory response. Macrophages secrete TNF-α in response to infection, injury, or other inflammatory stimuli, contributing to the recruitment of immune cells and the activation of additional inflammatory pathways. In the context of the acute phase response, macrophages are key mediators of the immune response and play a crucial role in host defense mechanisms.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following cellular receptors is responsible for recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and initiating innate immune responses?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are a group of cellular receptors responsible for recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), which are molecular components commonly found on pathogens like bacteria and viruses. When TLRs recognize these PAMPs, they initiate signaling pathways that trigger the innate immune response, leading to inflammation, antimicrobial defense, and the activation of adaptive immunity. B cell receptors (BCRs) and T cell receptors (TCRs) are involved in adaptive immune responses and recognize specific antigens rather than PAMPs. Fc receptors primarily bind to the Fc portion of antibodies and are involved in antibody-mediated immune responses. Thus, TLRs specifically play a critical role in sensing and responding to pathogens through the recognition of PAMPs.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with a tension pneumothorax?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a tension pneumothorax, the most appropriate intervention is needle decompression (Option A). This procedure involves inserting a large-bore needle into the chest to relieve the pressure buildup in the pleural space. Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse and shifting of mediastinal structures, compromising cardiac output and lung function. Needle decompression is a rapid and potentially life-saving intervention to restore normal lung function by releasing the trapped air. Option B, chest tube insertion, is not the initial intervention for a tension pneumothorax. While a chest tube may be needed after needle decompression to further drain the air, it is not the first-line treatment for this emergent situation. High-flow oxygen therapy (Option C) is important in treating hypoxemia but is not the primary intervention for a tension pneumothorax. Providing oxygen alone will not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space. Incentive spirometry (Option D) is a breathing exercise used to improve lung function and prevent atelectasis but is not appropriate for managing a tension pneumothorax. Understanding the correct management of tension pneumothorax is crucial for nurses caring for patients in acute settings. Recognizing the signs and symptoms, and knowing the appropriate interventions can make a significant difference in patient outcomes. Rapid assessment and intervention can save lives in critical situations like tension pneumothorax.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requires long-term oxygen therapy to maintain adequate oxygenation. Which of the following oxygen delivery devices is most appropriate for delivering continuous supplemental oxygen in this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate oxygen delivery device for a patient with chronic respiratory failure secondary to severe restrictive lung disease requiring continuous supplemental oxygen is a non-rebreather mask. A non-rebreather mask is designed to deliver high-flow oxygen and is typically used for short-term medical treatment in emergency situations or for critically ill patients. It is ideal for providing the highest concentration of oxygen available for inhalation, making it suitable for patients with severe hypoxemia.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions