Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience persistent and excessive worry or anxiety about a variety of situations or activities, even when there is little or no reason to worry. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life, distinguishing it as a key feature of GAD. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), not GAD. Hallucinations are not typically seen in GAD but may be present in conditions like schizophrenia. Compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not GAD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Engaging the patient in a reality-based activity is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with schizophrenia experiencing hallucinations. This intervention can help distract the patient from the hallucinations and reorient them to the present, promoting a connection with reality and potentially reducing distress associated with the hallucinations. Choice A, encouraging the patient to ignore the voices, may not be effective as it can be challenging for the patient to dismiss the hallucinations. Choice C, providing a quiet environment, is helpful but may not directly address the hallucinations. Choice D, asking the patient to describe the hallucinations in detail, may increase the patient's focus on the hallucinations, potentially worsening distress.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Valproic acid is commonly prescribed as a mood stabilizer for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps in controlling mood swings, preventing manic episodes, and reducing the risk of depressive episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. Sertraline is an antidepressant typically used for major depressive disorder and other anxiety disorders, not for bipolar disorder. Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications primarily used in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders, not as first-line treatments for bipolar disorder.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.