Which of the following is a general-purpose medium?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tryptic soy agar is a general-purpose medium suitable for cultivating a wide range of microorganisms. It provides essential nutrients for growth without inhibiting specific types of bacteria. Blood agar (B), Mannitol salt agar (C), and MacConkey agar (D) are selective or differential media designed to promote the growth of specific types of bacteria or differentiate between different bacterial species. Therefore, they are not considered general-purpose mediums.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of these. Coating soluble antigen onto Bentonite particles, RBCs, or Latex particles can convert a precipitation reaction into an agglutination reaction. This is because soluble antigens bind to their specific antibodies, causing the particles to clump together, visible as agglutination. Bentonite particles, RBCs, and Latex particles all provide surfaces for the antigen-antibody interaction to occur, leading to agglutination. Therefore, all of these options are correct for converting precipitation reactions to agglutination reactions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to screen for tuberculosis by injecting PPD intradermally. The presence of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction indicates prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The Schick test (B) is used to test for immunity to diphtheria, while the Dick test (C) is used to test for immunity to scarlet fever. Therefore, the correct use of PPD is in the Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A: Fluconazole): Fluconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections caused by Candida albicans. It targets the fungal cell membrane, disrupting its structure and function. This makes it an effective treatment for oral thrush, which is caused by Candida overgrowth in the oral mucosa. The continuous use of antibiotics can disrupt the normal balance of microorganisms in the body, leading to fungal overgrowth. Fluconazole specifically targets the yeast fungi without affecting bacteria, making it the appropriate choice for this complication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Biseptol - Biseptol is an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi like Candida albicans. C: Tetracycline - Tetracycline is also an antibiotic that targets bacteria, not fungi. D: Furazolidone - Furazolidone is an antibiotic primarily used for treating bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral thrush caused by Candida

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Clostridium perfringens is a Gram-positive rod-shaped bacterium, which matches the description provided. It is motile and peritrichous (having flagella all over the surface) without a capsule. This bacterium is known to cause gas gangrene due to its ability to produce toxins that destroy tissue. Choice A is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it does not have a capsule. Choice B is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is not motile and does not have flagella all over its surface. Choice D is incorrect because Clostridium perfringens is Gram-positive, not Gram-negative, and it is motile without a capsule.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the factors listed can contribute to the transmission of nosocomial infections. Medical dressings can harbor pathogens, breast milk can be a source of infection if not handled properly, and toys can serve as fomites for spreading germs. Choosing any other option would be incorrect as they all play a role in facilitating the transmission of nosocomial infections. It is important to consider all potential sources of infection in healthcare settings to effectively prevent the spread of nosocomial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillary dysentery primarily affects the intestinal tract, not the bloodstream. 2. Bacteremia is rare in bacillary dysentery, as the infection is localized. 3. Isolating bacteria from the blood is not a typical diagnostic feature. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery are not typically isolated from the patient's blood due to the localized nature of the infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest specific timeframes, which are not relevant to bacteremia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as bacteremia is not associated with bacillary dysentery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative points towards coagulase-negative staphylococci like Staphylococcus epidermidis. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, the most likely causative agent in this scenario is Staphylococcus epidermidis.