ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a common side effect of corticosteroid use?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroids can increase blood sugar levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake in cells. This leads to hyperglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because corticosteroids usually cause hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids typically increase appetite, not decrease it. Choice D is incorrect because weight gain, not weight loss, is a common side effect of corticosteroid use.
Question 2 of 5
A 60-year-old female with osteoporosis is prescribed zoledronic acid. Zoledronic acid works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Zoledronic acid is a bisphosphonate that works by inhibiting osteoclast activity, thereby reducing bone resorption. This helps in increasing bone density and strength in conditions like osteoporosis. Other choices are incorrect because zoledronic acid does not directly affect bone formation by osteoblasts (choice A), calcium absorption from the gut (choice C), or the secretion of parathyroid hormone (choice D).
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following drugs is used to treat an overactive bladder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that helps relax the bladder muscles, reducing urinary frequency and urgency in overactive bladder. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, not overactive bladder. Amlodipine (C) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure, not overactive bladder. Metformin (D) is an antidiabetic drug used for managing type 2 diabetes, not overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is the most appropriate choice for treating overactive bladder due to its muscle relaxant effects on the bladder.
Question 4 of 5
A 55-year-old woman is prescribed atenolol for hypertension. Atenolol works by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blocking beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that specifically targets beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, leading to decreased heart rate and contractility, thereby reducing blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect as blocking calcium channels is the mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers. Choice B is incorrect as angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) inhibit the enzyme that produces angiotensin II. Choice D is incorrect as diuretics are medications that increase the excretion of sodium in the kidneys.
Question 5 of 5
A 60-year-old male is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Lisinopril works by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, which blocks the enzyme responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so by inhibiting its production, lisinopril helps dilate blood vessels, lowering blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because calcium channel blockers work differently. Choice C is incorrect because aldosterone release is not directly affected by lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect because beta-blockers target a different pathway in the heart.