ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is a common manifestation of opioid withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors and increased blood pressure. During opioid withdrawal, individuals commonly experience symptoms such as tremors, increased blood pressure, and restlessness. Choice A, which suggests bradycardia and hypotension, is incorrect as opioid withdrawal often leads to tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and increased blood pressure. Choice C, severe muscle weakness and fatigue, is not a typical manifestation of opioid withdrawal. Choice D, severe hallucinations and delusions, is more characteristic of conditions like delirium tremens associated with alcohol withdrawal, rather than opioid withdrawal.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is preparing to discontinue a client's indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when discontinuing a client's indwelling urinary catheter is to measure and document the urine in the drainage bag. This step is essential to assess the client's urinary output and bladder function before removing the catheter. Removing the tape securing the catheter (Choice B) or positioning the client supine (Choice C) should come after measuring and documenting the urine output. Deflating the catheter balloon (Choice D) is the last step in the process of removing the catheter.
Question 3 of 9
A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to hang the drainage bag below the bladder. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not necessary unless clinically indicated and may increase infection risk by introducing pathogens. Ensuring the tubing is unkinked promotes proper urine flow but does not directly prevent infection. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important to prevent urinary stasis but does not directly address infection prevention.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is evaluating a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following lab values requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Potassium levels above 5.0 mEq/L can lead to cardiac issues, and a level of 6.5 mEq/L requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in the context of hemodialysis monitoring.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.
Question 6 of 9
What are the instructions for a behind-the-ear hearing aid?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to remove a behind-the-ear hearing aid before showering to prevent water damage. Choice A is incorrect because it is safe to wear the hearing aid while sleeping as it does not pose a risk of damage. Choice C is incorrect because it is advisable to remove the hearing aid during certain activities to prevent damage or loss. Choice D is incorrect as hearing aids do not need to be replaced weekly unless there is an issue with the device.
Question 7 of 9
A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a primary focus of tertiary prevention in mental health?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rehabilitation and prevention of further deterioration. Tertiary prevention in mental health aims to provide interventions and support to individuals who already have a mental illness to prevent further deterioration and promote recovery. Choice A, identifying early signs of mental illness, is more aligned with primary prevention which focuses on preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice B, preventing the occurrence of mental health problems, pertains to secondary prevention which involves early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of mental health issues. Choice D, providing a safe environment to prevent harm, is important but it is not the primary focus of tertiary prevention which is more centered on rehabilitation and improving the quality of life for individuals with existing mental health conditions.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client pulseless. The client's living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. In the absence of a written DNR order by the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally obligated to initiate CPR to attempt to save the client's life. Administering emergency medications without CPR (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for life-saving measures. Calling the provider for a DNR order (Choice C) may cause a delay in providing necessary resuscitative measures. Respecting the client's wishes and not attempting CPR (Choice D) goes against the nurse's duty to provide immediate life-saving interventions in the absence of a DNR order.