ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Answer Key Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term corticosteroid use in patients with rheumatoid arthritis can lead to osteoporosis, which is a common complication. Osteoporosis causes weakening of the bones, increasing the risk of fractures, particularly in weight-bearing bones such as the hip, spine, and wrist. Osteoporotic fractures are a significant concern in patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, highlighting the importance of monitoring bone health and considering preventive measures such as calcium, Vitamin D supplementation, and regular bone density testing. While osteonecrosis of the femoral head and avascular necrosis of the talus can also occur as complications of corticosteroid use, osteoporotic fractures are more commonly associated with this type of therapy in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Septic arthritis, on the other hand, is not directly related to corticosteroid use but can occur due to other factors such as joint infections.
Question 2 of 5
A patient presents with scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema. On physical examination, there is a tender, fluctuant mass in the scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis in this scenario is epididymitis. Epididymitis is an inflammation of the epididymis, a coiled tube at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm. Common symptoms include scrotal pain, swelling, erythema (redness), and a tender, fluctuant mass in the scrotum due to an abscess. Risk factors for epididymitis include urinary tract infections, sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea or chlamydia), and recent urological procedures. It is important to differentiate epididymitis from testicular torsion, which would present with sudden, severe testicular pain, absent cremasteric reflex, and a high-riding testicle. Testicular cancer typically presents as a painless mass or swelling in the scrotum, and hydrocele presents as painless scrotal swelling due to a collection of fluid
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with foul-smelling diarrhea containing cysts upon microscopic examination. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic protist known to cause amoebiasis, a gastrointestinal infection that can lead to symptoms such as foul-smelling diarrhea containing cysts. Upon microscopic examination of the feces, the presence of Entamoeba histolytica cysts is a key diagnostic feature. This parasite can be transmitted through contaminated food or water, and individuals infected with Entamoeba histolytica may experience abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, and weight loss. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to manage this infection and prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a parasite commonly found in contaminated water sources such as streams or lakes. It causes an infection called cryptosporidiosis, which often presents with symptoms like watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea. The oocysts of Cryptosporidium parvum can be identified in stool samples, making it the likely culprit in this scenario. Giardia lamblia, another common waterborne parasite, can also cause similar symptoms but is characterized by trophozoites rather than oocysts in stool samples. Entamoeba histolytica is associated with amoebic dysentery and does not typically present with watery diarrhea. Cyclospora cayetanensis is another parasite causing gastrointestinal symptoms but is not as commonly associated with contaminated water sources as Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 5 of 5
A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation. On examination, the uterus is tender, and the fundus feels firm. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and dark red vaginal bleeding with a tender, firm uterus at 28 weeks gestation is abruptio placentae. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. This condition can be life-threatening to both the mother and the fetus, as it can lead to severe bleeding and compromise the oxygen and nutrients supply to the fetus. The presentation typically includes severe abdominal pain, dark red or maroon vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and a firm uterus due to the blood accumulation behind the placenta. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent adverse maternal and fetal outcomes.