Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term use of corticosteroids in orthopedic patients?

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Question 1 of 5

Which of the following is a common complication associated with long-term use of corticosteroids in orthopedic patients?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Osteoporosis is a common complication associated with long-term use of corticosteroids in orthopedic patients. Corticosteroids can lead to bone loss by inhibiting bone formation and promoting bone resorption, resulting in decreased bone mineral density and increased risk of fractures. Therefore, patients on long-term corticosteroid therapy, especially in high doses, should be monitored closely for osteoporosis and receive appropriate preventive measures such as calcium, vitamin D supplementation, and bisphosphonates to mitigate the risk of bone thinning and fractures.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee. Physical examination reveals a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line. McMurray's test elicits pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation. Which condition is most likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee, along with a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line, is highly suggestive of a meniscus injury. The McMurray's test specifically evaluates for meniscal tears. In this case, the presence of pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation indicates a medial meniscus tear as the most likely diagnosis. Patellar tendinitis usually presents with anterior knee pain that is worsened by activities such as jumping or running. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain typically presents with lateral knee pain and instability. Quadriceps tendon rupture would present with significant weakness and inability to fully extend the knee, which is not described in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema. Physical examination reveals a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Given the sudden-onset severe scrotal pain, swelling, and erythema, along with the physical examination findings of a tender, swollen, and high-riding testicle, the most likely diagnosis is testicular torsion. Testicular torsion occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle, causing ischemia and severe pain. It is considered a surgical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and intervention to salvage the affected testicle. Prompt surgical detorsion is necessary to prevent irreversible testicular damage. While epididymitis, testicular trauma, and testicular tumors can also present with scrotal pain and swelling, the presence of a high-riding testicle in this context is highly suggestive of testicular torsion.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with periorbital edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms presented (periorbital edema, hypertension, proteinuria) along with the laboratory findings (elevated creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis) are classical signs of chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, the kidneys gradually lose their function over time, leading to impaired filtration of waste products and electrolyte imbalance. The presence of hypertension and proteinuria are common in CKD due to the compromised renal function. Additionally, elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis are indicative of kidney dysfunction.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Plasmodium falciparum, which is the parasite that causes malaria. The symptoms of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia following a camping trip are highly suggestive of malaria, especially if the patient has thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Plasmodium falciparum is known to cause severe malaria with complications such as thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The other options, Trypanosoma cruzi, Borrelia burgdorferi, and Leishmania donovani, do not typically present with all of the symptoms described and are not associated with the laboratory findings of thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.

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