ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a waist circumference of 38 inches for a male is a clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome. This measurement reflects abdominal obesity, a key component of metabolic syndrome. Excess abdominal fat is associated with insulin resistance, high blood pressure, and dyslipidemia, which are all features of metabolic syndrome. Choice B is incorrect because a waist circumference of 34 inches for a female is not the correct measurement for identifying metabolic syndrome in females. Choice C is incorrect because a blood pressure of 134/88 for a male, while elevated, is not a specific clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because a blood pressure of 128/84 for a female, although slightly elevated, is not a specific clinical identifier of metabolic syndrome.
Question 2 of 5
Which is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Dividing the breast into quadrants and inspecting each systematically is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer because it ensures thorough coverage of the entire breast, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. This method allows for a structured approach, reducing the likelihood of missing any potential signs of cancer. A: Beginning at the nipple and making an ever-enlarging spiral may not cover all areas of the breast equally, potentially leading to missed abnormalities. C: Examining in lines resembling mowing a lawn may also result in uneven coverage and potentially missing crucial areas. D: Beginning at the nipple and palpating outward in a stripe pattern may not provide comprehensive coverage of the entire breast, increasing the risk of overlooking abnormalities.
Question 3 of 5
Monique is a 33-year-old administrative assistant who has had intermittent lower abdominal pain approximately one week a month for the past year. It is not related to her menses. She notes relief with defecation, and a change in form and frequency of her bowel movements with these episodes. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Monique's symptoms of lower abdominal pain relieved by defecation, change in bowel movements' form and frequency, and absence of menses-related pain align with IBS criteria. IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by abdominal pain and altered bowel habits. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, meaning other conditions must be ruled out. Choice A: Colon cancer is less likely due to Monique's age, absence of alarming symptoms like weight loss or blood in stool, and the intermittent nature of her symptoms. Choice B: Cholecystitis typically presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting, which do not match Monique's symptoms. Choice C: Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) usually presents with persistent symptoms, blood in stool, and systemic signs, which are not seen in Monique's case.
Question 4 of 5
Mr. Kruger is an 84-year-old who presents with a smooth lower abdominal mass in the midline which is minimally tender. There is dullness to percussion up to 6 centimeters above the symphysis pubis. What does this most likely represent?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for D (Enlarged bladder): The presentation of a smooth lower abdominal mass that is minimally tender and associated with dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis suggests an enlarged bladder. This is a common finding in elderly individuals due to various reasons such as urinary retention or bladder outlet obstruction. The location and characteristics of the mass align with an enlarged bladder. Summary of other choices: A: Sigmoid mass - Unlikely as sigmoid mass typically presents with different characteristics such as irregular shape and may not cause dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis. B: Tumor in the abdominal wall - Less likely as tumors in the abdominal wall would have a different presentation and wouldn't be associated with urinary symptoms. C: Hernia - Less likely as hernias typically manifest with a bulge that can be reduced and may not cause dullness to percussion above the symphysis pubis.
Question 5 of 5
You are obtaining an arterial blood gas in the radial artery on a retired cab driver who has been hospitalized in the intensive care unit for a stroke. You are concerned about the possibility of arterial insufficiency. You perform the Allen test. This means that you:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Allen test assesses collateral circulation by checking for patency of the ulnar artery. This is important before obtaining an arterial blood gas from the radial artery to ensure adequate blood flow and prevent ischemia. If the ulnar artery is not patent, using the radial artery could lead to arterial insufficiency. Checking the radial artery's patency (Choice A) is not the purpose of the Allen test. Checking the patency of the brachial artery (Choice B) or the femoral artery (Choice D) is not relevant in this context. The correct answer is C because ensuring ulnar artery patency is crucial for arterial blood gas sampling from the radial artery.