Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during Gram staining. This thick layer is a key characteristic feature that helps differentiate Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain due to their thick peptidoglycan layer. 2. This thick layer provides structural support and protection to the cell. 3. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane, which is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria (Choice A). 4. Thin peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice B). 5. Presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice D). In summary, the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 10% of the infected men have no symptoms. This is true because gonorrhea can be asymptomatic in some individuals, leading to undiagnosed cases. Testicular pain and epididymal tenderness (choice A) are not typical symptoms of gonorrhea in men. Painful urination (choice B) may or may not be present. Purulent discharge (choice D) is a common symptom but not always present. Therefore, choice C is the most accurate statement regarding gonorrhea symptoms in men.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protein synthesis. Bacterial ribosomes are responsible for translating the genetic information from mRNA into proteins. This process involves the binding of transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids to the ribosome and the formation of peptide bonds between the amino acids to create proteins. DNA replication (A) is carried out by DNA polymerase enzymes, not ribosomes. Energy production (C) is primarily the function of mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, and cell division (D) is regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, not ribosomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Clostridia of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection are spore-forming bacteria. Step 2: Spores are resistant structures that allow bacteria to survive in harsh conditions. Step 3: Feces contain these spore-forming bacteria due to contamination. Step 4: When feces are deposited on soil, the spores of these bacteria enter the soil. Step 5: Spores can remain dormant in soil for long periods. Summary: Choice A is correct as spore-forming bacteria enter soil through feces, which act as a source of contamination. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the direct introduction of spores into soil like feces do.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mycobacterium leprae is the correct answer because it is the bacterium responsible for causing leprosy. 2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not leprosy. 3. Escherichia coli is associated with gastrointestinal infections, not leprosy. 4. Staphylococcus aureus causes various skin infections, but not leprosy. In summary, Mycobacterium leprae is the correct choice because it is the specific bacterium known to cause leprosy, while the other options are associated with different diseases.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, which can lead to intestinal infections. 2. Shigella flexneri causes dysentery, primarily affecting the colon. 3. Helicobacter pylori causes stomach ulcers, not intestine infections. Summary: A is correct as Salmonella typhi causes intestine infection. B and C are incorrect as they cause different gastrointestinal issues. D is incorrect as A is a valid choice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Botulism. The tennis racket appearance seen under the microscope is characteristic of Clostridium botulinum, the bacterium responsible for botulism. This bacterium produces spores that resemble a tennis racket shape. Botulism is a type of food poisoning caused by the ingestion of the toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. Summary: B: Salmonellosis is caused by Salmonella bacteria, which do not exhibit a tennis racket appearance. C: Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, which also does not resemble a tennis racket under the microscope. D: Dysentery is typically caused by bacteria such as Shigella or Entamoeba histolytica, neither of which exhibit the characteristic tennis racket appearance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Break down antibiotics like penicillin. Beta-lactamase is an enzyme produced by bacteria to inactivate beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin by breaking the beta-lactam ring. This mechanism helps bacteria resist the antibiotic's effects. The other choices are incorrect because beta-lactamase does not enhance protein synthesis, facilitate DNA replication, or transport nutrients. It specifically targets and deactivates beta-lactam antibiotics, making choice A the most appropriate answer.