ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during Gram staining. This thick layer is a key characteristic feature that helps differentiate Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain due to their thick peptidoglycan layer. 2. This thick layer provides structural support and protection to the cell. 3. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane, which is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria (Choice A). 4. Thin peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice B). 5. Presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice D). In summary, the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive
Question 2 of 9
Acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever are often the clinical presentation of which viral infection:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adenovirus. Adenovirus commonly causes acute febrile pharyngitis and pharyngoconjunctival fever. Adenovirus is known to cause respiratory infections and can present with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis. VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus) causes chickenpox and shingles, not these specific symptoms. Measles virus causes a systemic illness with characteristic rash, not typically pharyngitis. Rubella virus causes a mild febrile illness with rash, but not pharyngitis. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation described, adenovirus is the most likely cause.
Question 3 of 9
A sputum smear stained by Gram's method revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The patient presented with an abscess. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive bacterium that commonly presents as cocci in clusters. It is a known causative agent of abscesses due to its ability to produce enzymes and toxins that contribute to tissue destruction. In this case, the presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters aligns with the characteristic morphology of Staphylococcus aureus. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as cocci in chains, not clusters. It is more commonly associated with pharyngitis and skin infections rather than abscesses. C: Enterococcus faecalis is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as cocci in pairs or short chains, not clusters. It is more commonly associated with urinary tract infections and endocarditis. D: Micrococcus luteus is a Gram-positive bacterium that typically presents as t
Question 4 of 9
After starting treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis a patient complained about red tears and urine. What drug could cause such changes?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to cause red discoloration of bodily fluids, including tears and urine, due to its side effect of harmless color changes. Benzylpenicillins (B and C) and Biseptol-480 do not typically cause such discoloration. Rifampicin's mechanism of action involves binding to bacterial RNA polymerase, leading to inhibition of RNA synthesis, which is unrelated to the mechanism of the other drugs. Thus, based on the unique side effect profile of Rifampicin and its mechanism of action, it is the most likely drug causing red tears and urine in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is responsible for causing syphilis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Treponema pallidum is a spirochete bacterium known to cause syphilis. Step 2: It is sexually transmitted and can cause various stages of disease. Step 3: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, not syphilis. Step 4: Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, not syphilis. Step 5: Escherichia coli is a common gut bacterium and not responsible for syphilis. Treponema pallidum is the correct answer as it is the specific bacterium known to cause syphilis.
Question 6 of 9
The role of pili in bacteria is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: adhesion to surfaces and conjugation. Pili are hair-like structures on the surface of bacteria that help them adhere to surfaces and facilitate the transfer of genetic material during conjugation. This is essential for bacterial survival and reproduction. Choice A is incorrect because protection from desiccation is typically associated with other structures like capsules. Choice B is incorrect as motility in bacteria is usually facilitated by flagella. Choice D is incorrect as spore formation involves the formation of specialized structures, not pili.
Question 7 of 9
Cause of genital warts is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Human papillomavirus. Genital warts are caused by certain strains of HPV, specifically types 6 and 11. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that affects the skin and mucous membranes. HPV is directly linked to the development of genital warts through skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Herpes simplex virus 2 causes genital herpes, not genital warts. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) weakens the immune system but does not directly cause genital warts. Human cytomegalovirus (CMV) is not a common cause of genital warts. Therefore, HPV is the correct and most logical choice for the cause of genital warts.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive bacteria?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thick peptidoglycan layer. Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall, which retains the crystal violet stain during Gram staining. This thick layer is a key characteristic feature that helps differentiate Gram-positive bacteria from Gram-negative bacteria. Rationale: 1. Gram-positive bacteria retain the crystal violet stain due to their thick peptidoglycan layer. 2. This thick layer provides structural support and protection to the cell. 3. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane, which is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria (Choice A). 4. Thin peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice B). 5. Presence of LPS (lipopolysaccharide) is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria, not Gram-positive (Choice D). In summary, the presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer is a characteristic feature of Gram-positive
Question 9 of 9
The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement in the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. It focuses on how the body processes a drug over time. Pharmacodynamics (A) is the study of the effects drugs have on the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) involves using drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacy (D) is the practice of preparing and dispensing medications. Pharmacokinetics specifically deals with drug concentrations at different body sites after administration, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.