ATI RN
Nursing Process NCLEX Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following intravenous solutions is hypotonic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.45% saline. This solution is hypotonic because it has a lower osmolarity compared to the intracellular fluid. It contains fewer solutes than the cells, causing water to move into the cells by osmosis, potentially causing them to swell. Normal saline (A) and Ringer's lactate (B) are isotonic solutions, meaning they have a similar osmolarity to the intracellular fluid and do not cause significant water shifts. 5% dextrose in normal saline (D) is a hypertonic solution, containing more solutes than the cells, leading to water movement out of the cells.
Question 2 of 9
A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions is essential for a client during the Schilling test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because collecting urine 24-48 hrs after the client has received nonradioactive B12 is essential for the Schilling test to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption. Urine is collected to measure the excretion of radioactive B12, which helps in diagnosing pernicious anemia or malabsorption issues. Incorrect choices: B: Collecting blood samples is not necessary for the Schilling test as it primarily involves urine collection. C: Allowing oral fluid consumption is important to prevent dehydration and is not contraindicated after receiving nonradioactive B12. D: Making the client lie down in the supine position is unnecessary for the Schilling test and may not affect the test results.
Question 4 of 9
A very popular means of early detection of breast cancer is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Breast self-examination. This is because regular breast self-examination allows individuals to become familiar with their own breast tissue and identify any changes or abnormalities early on. X-ray (choice A) and surgical (choice C) are not typically used as early detection methods for breast cancer. Choice B is also incorrect because while mammograms (X-rays) are an important screening tool, self-examination should not be replaced by it, as it is a proactive way for individuals to take charge of their own health.
Question 5 of 9
A client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. First, the nurse should put the implant back in place using forceps and a shield for self-protection. This is important to limit the exposure to radiation for both the client and the nurse. Second, the nurse should call for help to ensure proper handling and further assistance. Standing away from the implant (choice A) does not address the immediate need to secure the implant. Picking up the implant with long-handled forceps and placing it in a lead-lined container (choice B) should only be done by trained personnel to prevent further exposure. Leaving the room and notifying the radiation therapy department immediately (choice C) delays the immediate action needed to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is using critical thinking skills during the first phase of the nursing process. Which action indicates the nurse is in the first phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Completes a comprehensive database. During the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects data to establish a comprehensive database of the patient's health status. This information serves as the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Identifying nursing diagnoses (B) occurs in the second phase (diagnosis), intervening based on priorities (C) in the third phase (planning), and determining outcomes achieved (D) in the fourth phase (evaluation). Completing a comprehensive database is crucial in the initial assessment phase to gather accurate information for the subsequent steps in the nursing process.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is implementing interventions for a group of patients. Which actions are nursing interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Repositioning a patient who is on bed rest is a nursing intervention as it involves direct patient care to prevent complications like pressure ulcers. Step 2: Nursing interventions aim to promote patient health, prevent illness, and provide comfort. Step 3: Ordering chest x-ray and prescribing antibiotics are medical interventions, beyond the scope of nursing practice. Step 4: Teaching preoperative exercises falls under nursing education but not a direct nursing intervention involving patient care. Summary: Choice C is correct as it aligns with the essence of nursing interventions focusing on patient care and wellbeing. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that are not within the scope of nursing interventions.
Question 8 of 9
Considering Mr. Franco’s conditions, which of the following is most important to include in preparing Franco’s bedside equipment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice B: Footboard and splint: 1. Footboard helps prevent foot drop by maintaining proper alignment and preventing pressure ulcers. 2. Splint helps stabilize and support Franco's limbs to prevent contractures and maintain proper positioning. 3. Both items are essential for Franco's safety, comfort, and prevention of complications. 4. Hand bell and extra bed linen (Choice A) are not crucial for Franco's immediate care needs. 5. Sandbag and trochanter rolls (Choice C) are not directly relevant to Franco's specific conditions. 6. Suction machine and gloves (Choice D) are important for airway management but not the priority for bedside equipment in this case.
Question 9 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. The thymus gland is often found to be abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis, and removing it through thymectomy can lead to substantial remission of symptoms. This is because the thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and may be producing antibodies that attack neuromuscular junctions in myasthenia gravis. Choice A, esophagostomy, is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the esophagus for feeding and has no direct impact on myasthenia gravis. Choice C, myomectomy, is the removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis as the spleen is not implicated in the disease process.