ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opioids. Administering naloxone intravenously is the recommended intervention for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose as it can quickly reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other effects of opioids. This intervention can be life-saving in cases of opioid overdose and is a critical step in the management of such patients. Providing respiratory support with bag-valve-mask ventilation may be necessary in addition to naloxone administration to ensure adequate oxygenation, but naloxone remains the primary intervention to reverse the effects of opioids. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids rapidly or administering benzodiazepines for sedation are not recommended interventions for managing a suspected opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 5
To obtain her license to practice, she must do the following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To obtain a license to practice, the individual must follow certain steps and fulfill specific requirements. Option A states that she must take the path to any government official, which is not accurate or necessary in the process of obtaining a professional license. The other options provided are correct in the usual process of getting a license: registering in the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC), taking the oath of professionals before a member of the Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing (PRBON), and being issued a certificate of Registration (COR) and a profession identification card (PIN).
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of epistaxis, particularly after blowing the nose or during dry weather. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a friable, vascular lesion in Little's area. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The clinical scenario described is consistent with a diagnosis of anterior epistaxis due to a prominent vascular lesion located in Little's area, which is an important site for nosebleeds. Silver nitrate cautery is the most appropriate intervention for managing this condition. Silver nitrate cautery is a commonly used method to chemically cauterize and eliminate the friable blood vessels responsible for recurrent epistaxis. It is a cost-effective and minimally invasive technique that can be easily performed in an outpatient setting. Nasal packing with anterior nasal tampons might be considered in cases of severe or refractory epistaxis, but in this scenario, where the source of bleeding is localized and identifiable, silver nitrate cautery is the treatment of choice. Endoscopic cauterization of the sphenopalatine artery and surgical excision of a nasal polyp are unnecessary and overly invasive for the described scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A 25-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On pelvic examination, the uterus is retroverted, and a tender, nodular mass is palpated behind the uterus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The scenario described, including cyclic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, retroverted uterus, and a nodular mass behind the uterus, is most indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a gynecological condition in which tissue similar to the endometrium (the tissue that lines the uterus) is found outside the uterus, typically on structures within the pelvis. The presence of endometrial tissue in abnormal locations can lead to symptoms such as pelvic pain, especially during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), painful intercourse (dyspareunia), and the formation of nodular masses (endometriomas) that can be felt on pelvic examination. It is important to note that while adenomyosis and uterine fibroids (leiomyomas) can also cause pelvic pain and dysmenorrhea, the specific findings of retroverted uterus and palpable nodular mass behind
Question 5 of 5
Nurse Rey with the members of the team. from a tertiary hospital is going for their annual outreach program Operation TULI". There were 3000 patients who came in the morning with only 4 doctors, 3 nurses and 1 pharmacist. Due to the volume of patients, Nurse Rey, was asked to participate in per forming circumcision with the rest of the doctors. Nurse Rey can be 1iable of committing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Rey can be liable for committing malpractice. Malpractice refers to professional negligence or failure to provide the standard of care expected in a particular medical situation. In this scenario, Nurse Rey is not qualified or authorized to perform circumcisions, as it falls outside of the scope of practice for a nurse. By participating in performing circumcisions without the necessary qualifications and training, Nurse Rey is potentially putting patients at risk and not providing the appropriate standard of care expected from a healthcare professional. This could be considered as malpractice, for which Nurse Rey may be held liable.