ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opioids. Administering naloxone intravenously is the recommended intervention for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose as it can quickly reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other effects of opioids. This intervention can be life-saving in cases of opioid overdose and is a critical step in the management of such patients. Providing respiratory support with bag-valve-mask ventilation may be necessary in addition to naloxone administration to ensure adequate oxygenation, but naloxone remains the primary intervention to reverse the effects of opioids. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids rapidly or administering benzodiazepines for sedation are not recommended interventions for managing a suspected opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-protein diet. Which dietary choice indicates understanding of the prescribed diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A patient with chronic kidney disease prescribed a low-protein diet should avoid high-protein foods like grilled salmon, lentil soup, and beef stew. Chicken Caesar salad, on the other hand, typically contains a smaller amount of protein compared to the other options. This choice indicates an understanding of the need to limit protein intake while still enjoying a balanced meal. However, it is important to note that the quantity and portion sizes of high-protein ingredients in the salad should also be moderate to comply with a low-protein diet.
Question 3 of 9
Betamethasone (Celestone) is prescribed to be administered and the patient asks nurse Hope about the purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is a corticosteroid medication that is commonly used to promote fetal lung maturity in pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery. Administering betamethasone to the mother helps accelerate the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, which is essential for proper lung function and development. This medication is typically given to pregnant women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It does not prevent premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, delay delivery, or stop premature uterine contractions.
Question 4 of 9
A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage liver cancer experiences severe nausea and vomiting despite antiemetic therapy. What should the palliative nurse consider when addressing the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient receiving palliative care for end-stage cancer experiences severe nausea and vomiting despite current antiemetic therapy, the palliative nurse should consider switching to a different antiemetic medication with a different mechanism of action. This approach is based on the concept of individual variability in response to medications, as well as the potential development of tolerance to a particular drug. Switching to a different antiemetic with a new mechanism of action can provide the patient with a fresh chance at better symptom control by targeting different receptors or pathways involved in nausea and vomiting. It is important to consult the healthcare team and consider the patient's overall condition and medication history before making any changes in the treatment plan.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water from a stream during a camping trip. Laboratory tests reveal oocysts in the stool sample. Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible for this infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cryptosporidium parvum is a protozoan parasite often found in contaminated water sources. This parasite is known to cause watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea in infected individuals. The presence of oocysts in the stool sample is characteristic of Cryptosporidium infection. Other parasitic infections may present with similar symptoms, but in this case, the most likely culprit based on the exposure history and laboratory findings is Cryptosporidium parvum.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption and formation, resulting in bone thinning and increased risk of fractures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption (breakdown of bone tissue) and bone formation, leading to bone thinning and increased risk of fractures. In osteoporosis, bones become weak and porous, making them more prone to fractures even with minor trauma. This condition is common in postmenopausal women and older individuals. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, lack of physical activity, low calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications. Treatment typically involves lifestyle modifications, including adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, weight-bearing exercises, and sometimes medication to help slow down bone loss and reduce fracture risk. Early detection and management of osteoporosis are crucial to prevent fractures and maintain bone health.
Question 7 of 9
In CO-PAR, which is the MOST important role of the public health nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of CO-PAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research), the most important role of the public health nurse is being an expert. Public health nurses are expected to have specialized knowledge and skills in the field of public health, allowing them to provide evidence-based guidance and interventions to support community health initiatives. As an expert, the public health nurse can assess community needs, develop appropriate interventions, educate community members on health promotion and disease prevention, and evaluate the effectiveness of implemented programs. By utilizing their expertise, public health nurses can effectively contribute to improving the health outcomes and well-being of the community they serve.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with episodic throbbing headache associated with nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound. Symptoms are often preceded by an aura. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of episodic throbbing headache associated with nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and aura suggests a diagnosis of migraine headache. Migraines are a common neurological condition characterized by recurrent moderate to severe headaches that are often unilateral, pulsating, and aggravated by physical activity. The presence of premonitory symptoms (aura) before the headache is a key feature commonly seen in migraines. Additionally, nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound are also common features associated with migraines.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (