ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which of the following interventions is recommended for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose by binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opioids. Administering naloxone intravenously is the recommended intervention for managing a patient with a suspected opioid overdose as it can quickly reverse respiratory depression, sedation, and other effects of opioids. This intervention can be life-saving in cases of opioid overdose and is a critical step in the management of such patients. Providing respiratory support with bag-valve-mask ventilation may be necessary in addition to naloxone administration to ensure adequate oxygenation, but naloxone remains the primary intervention to reverse the effects of opioids. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids rapidly or administering benzodiazepines for sedation are not recommended interventions for managing a suspected opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 9
Betamethasone (Celestone) is prescribed to be administered and the patient asks nurse Hope about the purpose of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is a corticosteroid medication that is commonly used to promote fetal lung maturity in pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery. Administering betamethasone to the mother helps accelerate the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, which is essential for proper lung function and development. This medication is typically given to pregnant women between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. It does not prevent premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, delay delivery, or stop premature uterine contractions.
Question 3 of 9
When the nurse placed the patient in restraints before using other methods of intervention, she/he violated the patient's rights to ______.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placing a patient in restraints before utilizing other less restrictive interventions violates the patient's right to receive treatment in the least restrictive environment. Restraints should be used as a last resort when all other options have been exhausted, as they can be restrictive to the patient's movement and freedom. Patients have the right to be treated in a manner that minimizes limitations on their personal freedom and autonomy. Restraints should only be utilized when absolutely necessary for the safety of the patient or others.
Question 4 of 9
In handling all information about the famiilies in the community, which of the following principles should the nurse consider ethical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When handling information about families in the community, the nurse should consider the principle of confidentiality as ethical. Confidentiality refers to the obligation of healthcare providers to safeguard the privacy of patient information. By maintaining confidentiality, the nurse upholds trust and respect in the nurse-family relationship. This principle ensures that sensitive information shared by families is kept secure and not disclosed without permission, thus respecting their autonomy and promoting open communication in healthcare settings.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with a sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat, difficulty swallowing, and odynophagia. Flexible laryngoscopy reveals a submucosal mass arising from the posterior pharyngeal wall. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Zenker's diverticulum is a condition in which there is a pouch or sac that forms at the posterior pharyngeal wall above the upper esophageal sphincter. It can present with symptoms such as sensation of a foreign body stuck in the throat, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and odynophagia (painful swallowing). Flexible laryngoscopy can reveal a submucosal mass arising from the posterior pharyngeal wall, which is characteristic of Zenker's diverticulum.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and signs of hypotension. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST- segment elevation in the inferior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and ST-segment elevation on an ECG in the inferior leads are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI occurs when there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle, leading to tissue damage. This causes symptoms such as chest pain due to ischemia, dyspnea due to heart failure, and hypotension due to poor cardiac output. The ST-segment elevation seen on the ECG is indicative of significant myocardial injury. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in acute MI to prevent further complications and to minimize damage to the heart muscle. It is important to differentiate an acute MI from stable or unstable angina or other cardiovascular disorders, as the management and prognosis vary significantly.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following strategies would prove effective in preventing more incidence of dengue infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most effective strategy in preventing more incidence of dengue infection is to target the breeding places of the Aedes mosquitoes, which are the vectors responsible for transmitting the dengue virus. By eliminating stagnant water sources where these mosquitoes breed, such as uncovered containers, flower pots, and discarded tires, the mosquito population can be significantly reduced. This, in turn, helps to lower the risk of dengue transmission to humans. While healthy nutritious food, burning of leaves and garbage, and adequate rest and sleep are important for overall health and immune function, they do not directly address the primary cause of dengue transmission, which is the Aedes mosquito population.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with diabetes mellitus presents with polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, and fatigue. Laboratory findings reveal hyperglycemia, glycosuria, and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a patient with diabetes mellitus showing symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, and fatigue along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia, glycosuria, and ketonuria is indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, and ketosis. The increased glucose levels lead to glycosuria, causing osmotic diuresis resulting in polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. The body starts breaking down fats for energy in the absence of sufficient insulin, leading to the production of ketones causing ketonuria. The patient may also experience fatigue due to the metabolic abnormalities present in DKA.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for the management of edema. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop diuretic therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are potent diuretics commonly used to manage conditions like edema, heart failure, and hypertension. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle in the kidney, leading to increased diuresis. However, this mechanism of action can also lead to increased excretion of other electrolytes, such as magnesium.